quiz – UCTC

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Qustion Bank -2025

Question Bank -2023

You have 30 seconds per question.

Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-1

1 / 100

A) What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a so-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance?

A) 0:0

B) 1:1

C) 2:1

D) 50:50

2 / 100

B) Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?

A) The troposphere

B) The ionosphere

C) The stratosphere

D) The magnetosphere

3 / 100

C) What is the functioning role of an antenna in receiving mode?

A) lnverter

B) Sensor

C) Radiator

D) Converter

4 / 100

D) Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?

A) 15 meters

B) 10 meters

C) None

D) 12 meters

5 / 100

E) How can the current be calculated when the voltage and resistance in a dc circuit is known?

A) l= E/R

B) l=RxE

C) l=ExR

D) P=lxE

6 / 100

F) AccordinB to'lnstructions for Amateur Radio Usages and Procedures in Bangladesh' maximum
allowable output power for VHF/UHF Radio set is

A) 40 Watt

B) 25 Watt

C) 30 Watt

D) 35 Watt

7 / 100

G) What brief statement is often transmitted in place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a
repeater?

A) The words "Hello test" followed by your call sign

B) Your call sign

C) The repeater call sign followed by your call sign

D) The letters "QSY" followed by your call sign

8 / 100

H) The power can be expressed as

A) Both b & c

B) V=lR

C) P=l2R

D) P=Vl

9 / 100

I) How many dB change is resulted from a two-times increase or decrease in power?

A) Approximately 3 dB

B) Approximately 2 dB

C) Approximately 12 dB

D) Approximately 5 dB

10 / 100

J) Amateur satellites afford an opportunity to use frequencies above _ for long-distance communications

A) LF

B) HF

C) UVF

D) Ku

11 / 100

K) Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band?

A) 12.940 MHz

B) 17.940 M Hz

C) 24.940 MHz

D) 14.100 MHz

12 / 100

L) A fax transmission is usually at a ----- mode

A) Full-duplex

B) Half-duplex

C) Multiplex

D) Simplex

13 / 100

M) The number to be dialed or called to reach a subscriber in the same local network of numbering area is :

A) Subscriber No

B) Area code

C) Toll access code

D) Local code

14 / 100

N) What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?

A) Wavelenglh

B) Wave speed

C) Wave spread

D) Waveform

15 / 100

O) The DC current drawn by the final stage of a linear amplifier is 100 mA at 100 V. How much power is consumed?

A) 1 kilo watt

B) 1 watt

C) 10 watt

D) 100 watt

16 / 100

P) Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

A) Receiver

B) Transmitter

C) Antenna and feed line

D) All ofthese choices are correct

17 / 100

Q) Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?

A) Glass

B) Wood

C) Rubber

D) Copper

18 / 100

R) ln a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?

A) Reluctance

B) Resistance

C) Reactance

D) Admittance

19 / 100

S) lf 120 volt is measured across a 470 ohm resistor, approximately how much current is flowing through this resistor?

A) 5.64 ampere

B) 3.92 ampere

C) 56.40 ampere

D) 0.25 ampere

20 / 100

T) How can the current (l) be calculated when the voltage (E) and resistance ( R) in a DC circuit is known?

A) l=E/R

B) P= lxE

C) l=RxE

D) l=ExR

21 / 100

U) What are the two common polarization types for antenna?

A) Vertical& Lateral

B) All of the above

C) Horizontal & Vertical

D) H orizontal & Lateral

22 / 100

V) What is the approximate length of each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

A) L/4 wavelength

B) L/3 wavelength

C) 2/3 wavelength

D) 1/2 wavelength

23 / 100

W) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely capacitive circuit is:

A) 180 deg

B) 90 deg

C) 0 deg

D) 45 deg

24 / 100

X) Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter ?

A) DSB

B) CW

C) USB

D) LSB

25 / 100

Y) Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 145.52 MHz?

A) 14 meter band

B) 6 meter band

C) 20 meter band

D) 2 meter band

26 / 100

Z) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on a different channel?

A) Telecommand station

B) Space station

C) Repeater station

D) Relay station

27 / 100

AA) A light bulb draws 0.5 A from a L2 V battery when lit. How much power does it consume?

A) 6 W

B) 24 W

C) 0.03 W

D) 3 W

28 / 100

AB) For which of the following modes of a Class C power stage is appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) cw

C) AM

D) SSB

29 / 100

AC) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

A) 1.0 volts

B) 0.7 volts

C) 0.1volt

D) 0.3 volts

30 / 100

AD) Which of the following is the HF frequency range allotted for Amateur service?

A) 24 800-24 990KHz

B) 24 890-24 990KHz

C) 24 890-24 995KHz

D) 24 880-24 990KHz

31 / 100

AE) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

A) 0.1volt

B) 0.3 volts

C) 1.0 volts

D) 0.7 volts

32 / 100

AF) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is

A) 90 deg

B) 45 deg

C) 0 deg

D) 180 deg

33 / 100

AG) A L2 volt battery supplies a current of 0.25 ampere to a load. What is the input resistance of this load?

A) 48 ohm

B) 480 ohm

C) 3 ohm

D) 0.02 ohm

34 / 100

AH) What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

A) Frequency conversion

B) Frequency modu lation

C) Frequency convolution

D) Frequency transformation

35 / 100

AI) Which of the following is the HF frequency range allotted for Amateur service?

A) 28-29.1MHZ

B) 28-28.7MH2

C) 28 29.4MHz

D) 28-28.4MH2

36 / 100

AJ) What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?

A) Capacitor

B) Diode

C) Switch

D) lnductor

37 / 100

AK) The abbreviation using the Q code for high power is:

A) QRH

B) QRI

C) QRO

D) QRP

38 / 100

AL) Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands?

A) Double sideband

B) Lower sideband

C) U pper sideband

D) Vestigial sideband

39 / 100

AM) Who must designate the station control operator?

A) The station licensee

B) The ITU

C) The FCC

D) The frequency coordinator

40 / 100

AN) Under what type of control do APRS network digipeaters operate?

A) Local

B) Manual

C) Remote

D) Automatic

41 / 100

AO) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit is:

A) 45 deg

B) 90 deg

C) 0 deg

D) 180 deg

42 / 100

AP) How can the power (W) be calculated when the voltage (V) and current (l) in a DC circuit is known?

A) W=V+l

B) W=l^2xR

C) W= V/I

D) W=Vxl

43 / 100

AQ) The frequency limits of the UHF spectrum are

A) 3 to 300 MHz

B) 100 to 3000 MHz

C) 300 to 3000 MHz

D) 30 to 100 MHz

44 / 100

AR) How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

A) 3 dB higher

B) 2.54 dB higher

C) About the same

D) 3 dB lower

45 / 100

AS) ln radio communication link, what is the shape/nature of waves generated by transmitting antenna?

A) Spherical

B) Square

C) Triangular

D) Plane

46 / 100

AT) A method of multiplexing in which the total frequency spectrum available is used by each channel, but only for part of the time :

A) SDM

B) FDM

C) TDM

D) TDM

47 / 100

AU) Which band is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?

A) Dou ble sideband

B) Lower sideband

C) Vestigial sideband

D) Upper sideband

48 / 100

AV) ln Re8ion 3, 5 830-5 850MHz band is allotted for Amateu r-satellite for communication

A) None of these

B) Both a & b

C) Earth-to-space

D) Space-to-earth

49 / 100

AW) A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave is called

A) Transducer

B) Antenna

C) Microphone

D) Loudspeaker

50 / 100

AX) lf you move towards West from the Prime Meridian then the time will

A) Remain same

B) All of them

C) Decrease

D) lncrease

51 / 100

AY) The approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts

A) is 6 dB

B) is 12 dB

C) is 0 dB

D) is 3 dB

52 / 100

AZ) What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

A) Resistance

B) Current

C) Voltage

D) Capacitance

53 / 100

BA) which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth in order to minimize noise and
interference for CW reception?

A) 1000 Hz

B) 500 Hz

C) 2400 Hz

D) 5000 Hz

54 / 100

BB) The resistance value of an insulator is

A) None

B) Zero

C) Very High

D) Less than Unity

55 / 100

BC) Washing soda is the common name for:

A) Sodium bica rbonate

B) Calcium bicarbonate

C) Calcium carbonate

D) Sodium carbonate

56 / 100

BD) Which of the following band is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Double sideband

B) Lower sideband

C) Vestigialsideband

D) U pper sideband

57 / 100

BE) For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is the

A) Attenuation

B) Propagation constant

C) Phase velocity

D) Tilt angle

58 / 100

BF) What is the approximate length of each side of a quad antenna driven element?

A) 1/2 wavelength

B) 1/4 wavelength

C) 1 wavelength

D) 3/4 wavelength

59 / 100

BG) What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

A) 50 and 75 ohms

B) 80 and 100 ohms

C) 500 and 750 ohms

D) 25 and 30 ohms

60 / 100

BH) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 50 meter band?

A) 1.8 kHz

B) 3 kHz

C) 2.8 kHz

D) 5.6 kHz

61 / 100

BI) What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?

A) 300 to 3000 MHz

B) 30 to 300 MHz

C) 30 to 300 kHz

D) 300 to 3000 kHz

62 / 100

BJ) What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

A) Beacon station

B) Repeater station

C) Message forwarding station

D) Earth station

63 / 100

BK) Resolution of laser printer is specified in terms of:

A) CPM

B) LPM

C) PPM

D) DPI

64 / 100

BL) What frequency range is referred to as HF?

A) 300 to 3000 MHz

B) 3 to 30 MHz

C) 300 to 3000 kHz

D) 30 to 300 MHz

65 / 100

BM) Two 10 kilo ohm resistors are connected in parallel. lf the voltage from a battery across the resistors sets up a current of 5mA in the one resistor, how much current flows in the second?

A) 10 mA

B) smA

C) 20 mA

D) 2mA

66 / 100

BN) The Phonetic used to represent alphabet L is

A) LEEMA

B) lIMA

C) LEEMAH

D) LEMA

67 / 100

BO) Three capacitors of 1mF are connected in parallel. The equivalent capacitance is

A) 0.3 mF

B) 3.0 mF

C) 33.33 mF

D) 0.33 mF

68 / 100

BP) Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current flowing on the shield of a microphone cable?

A) Band-pass filter

B) Preamplifier

C) Low-pass filter

D) Ferrite choke

69 / 100

BQ) You are having trouble with reception due to interference from another station. The Q code to be used would be:

A) QRM

B) QRH

C) QRO

D) QRI

70 / 100

BR) What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Right-ha nd circular

B) Left-hand circular

C) Horizontal

D) Vertical

71 / 100

BS) The filament of an electric bulb is made of :

A) Graphite

B) None of these

C) Nichrome

D) Tungsten

72 / 100

BT) What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?

A) Ampere-hours

B) lnductance

C) Voltage

D) Capacitance

73 / 100

BU) Which among the following elucidate the generation of electromagntic waves?

A) Gauss's law

B) Kirchoff's law

C) Ampere's law

D) Faraday's law

74 / 100

BV) According to 'lnstructions for Amateur Radio Usages and Procedures in Bangladesh' maximum
allowable output power for VHF/UHF Walkie-Talkie set is?

A) 2 Watt

B) 5 Watt

C) 3 Watt

D) 4 watt

75 / 100

BW) Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A) Double sideband

B) Lower sideband

C) Vestigial sideband

D) U pper sideband

76 / 100

BX) Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

A) Class C

B) Class A

C) Class AB

D) Class B

77 / 100

BY) Balloons are filled with :

A) Nitrogen

B) Argon

C) Helium

D) Oxygen

78 / 100

BZ) What is the frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 300 mm in vacuam

A) 1 MHz

B) 100 kHz

C) 1 GHz

D) 100 MHz

79 / 100

CA) What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES )?

A) A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service

B) Licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for commu nications duty in the public service

C) Licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency

D) A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies

80 / 100

CB) Which of the following technique uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?

A) Double sideband

B) Single sideband

C) Frequency modulation

D) Phase modulation

81 / 100

CC) What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain frequency and blocks electrical energy above that frequency?

A) a high-pass filter

B) an input filter

C) a band-pass filter

D) a low-pass filter

82 / 100

CD) For Bangladeshi Amateur Radio License Holder, the applicable call sign charges (for once) is BDT:

A) 5000

B) 2500

C) 1500

D) 1000

83 / 100

CE) What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the lnternet?

A) digipeater

B) repeater

C) gateway

D) beacon

84 / 100

CF) BTRC is the abbreviation of:

A) Bangladesh Telecom Regulator's Council

B) Bangladesh Telecommunication and Radio Commission

C) Bangladesh Telecommunication Regulation Commission

D) Bangladesh Telecommu nication Regulatory Commission

85 / 100

CG) What type of device is often used to enable the matching of the transmitter output to an lmpedance other than 50 ohms?

A) Q Multiplier

B) Antenna coupler

C) SWR Bridge

D) Balanced modulator

86 / 100

CH) Two 500 pF capacitors in series produce an equivalent capacitance of:

A) 2000 pF

B) 1nF

C) 1000 pF

D) 250 pF

87 / 100

CI) What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit?

A) lnductor

B) Resistor

C) Voltmeter

D) Transformer

88 / 100

CJ) The relation between B and a is

A) B = (1-a) /a

B) B = a/(1 +a)

C) B = 1/(1-a )

D) B= a/ (1 -a)

89 / 100

CK) Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

A) Volts

B) Ohms

C) Amperes

D) Watts

90 / 100

CL) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data transmission on 20 meter band?

A) 19.6 kilobaud

B) 1200 baud

C) 56 kilobaud

D) 300 baud

91 / 100

CM) What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur raio installation?

A) 12 ohms

B) 600 ohms

C) 8 ohms

D) 50 ohms

92 / 100

CN) Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

A) Glass

B) Copper

C) Wood

D) Rubber

93 / 100

CO) The speed of light is :

A) 300,000,000 km/s

B) 300,000,000 mi/s

C) 300,000,000 mm/s

D) 300,000,000 m/s

94 / 100

CP) The VHF frequency range that is authorized to Amateurs is

A) 140-146MHz

B) 144-146M Hz

C) 140-144MHz

D) 142-146MHz

95 / 100

CQ) What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

A) KN

B) AR

C) SK

D) BK

96 / 100

CR) Two resistors are connected in series. The combined resistance is 1200 ohm. lf one of the resistors is 800 ohm, what is the value of the other?

A) 800 ohm

B) 1200 ohm

C) 400 ohm

D) 1000 ohm

97 / 100

CS) Radar altimeter is used for measurement of :

A) Range

B) Bearing

C) Height

D) Speed

98 / 100

CT) What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?

A) Electrostatic

B) Electromagnetic

C) Surface acoustic

D) Magnetostrictive

99 / 100

CU) Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation ?

A) Excessive bandwidth

B) lnsufficient bandwidth

C) lnsufficient audio

D) Frequency drift

100 / 100

CV) As what is the value of an AC waveform, representing the equivalent heating effect to a DC voltage, known as?

A) Corrected value

B) Average value

C) Peak value

D) RMS value

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Ham Exam

You have 30 seconds per question.

Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-2

1 / 100

A) What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna ?

A) Gain increases

B) Wind load decreases

C) sWR increases

D) Weight decreases

2 / 100

B) The term "5 and 9" used to describe a signal, is in which code?

A) Q code

B) RST code

C) Morse code

D) Color code

3 / 100

C) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the lowest usable frequency {LUF)?

A) They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

B) They pass through the ionosphere

C) They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

D) They are bent back to the Earth

4 / 100

D) When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your location?

A) At noon durinB the winter

B) At noon during the summer

C) At midnight during the summer

D) At dusk in the spring and fall

5 / 100

E) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the Eregion?

A) 12,000 miles

B) 2,500 miles

C) 1,200 miles

D) 180 miles

6 / 100

F) One of the following is not a conductor:

A) Mica

B) Silver

C) Copper

D) Aluminum

7 / 100

G) What is the output of a NOR gate given that both inputs are "zero"?

A) Minus one

B) The opposite from the previous state

C) One

D) Zero

8 / 100

H) Which of the following Solid state devices are most like a vacuum tube in its general characteristics?

A) A varistor

B) An FET

C) A bipolar transistor

D) A tunnel diode

9 / 100

I) What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

A) Photon decom position

B) Photon emission

C) Photovoltaic conversion

D) Photosynthesis

10 / 100

J) What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

A) L/4 wavelength

B) 1/2 wavelength

C) 1 wavelength

D) 3/4 wavelength

11 / 100

K) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

A) 270 degrees

B) 360 degrees

C) 90 degrees

D) 180 degrees

12 / 100

L) which of the following is the most commonly used digital logic family of integrated circuits?

A) PMOS

B) TTL

C) CMOS

D) RTL

13 / 100

M) Which is the correct Q Code for "when will you call me again?"

A) QSB

B) QRX

C) QRH

D) QSD

14 / 100

N) What are the lower and upper frequencies of the 15m amateur band?

A) 21.000-21.450 MHz

B) 21.000-21.350 MHz

C) 21.350-21.450 MHz

D) 21.100-21,.350 MHz

15 / 100

O) The opposition to the flow of current in a circuit is called:

A) Resistance

B) Capacitance

C) Emission

D) lnductance

16 / 100

P) What unit is used to measure reactance?

A) Ampere

B) Farad

C) ohm

D) Siemens

17 / 100

Q) What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-0hm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance

A) 150 to 1

B) 12.2 to 1

C) 300 to 1

D) 24.4 to 1

18 / 100

R) One of the following is not an insulator

A) Ceramic

B) Plastic

C) Copper

D) Mica

19 / 100

S) Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

A) Heater

B) Screen grid

C) Suppressor grid

D) control grid

20 / 100

T) What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

A) 8.5 volts

B) 6 volts

C) 12 volts

D) 10.5 volts

21 / 100

U) The frequency of 21.250 is in the radio amateur:

A) 40 meter band

B) 21 meter band

C) 15 meter band

D) 30 meter band

22 / 100

V) Which the correct Q Code is for "are my signals fading?"

A) QRH

B) QSD

C) QSB

D) QRN

23 / 100

W) A station that is intended to be operated while it is in motion or while it is stationary at an unspecified place is called

A) A portable station

B) A removable radio station

C) A mobile station

D) An amateur radio station

24 / 100

X) How many states are there in a 3-bit binary counter?

A) 3

B) 16

C) 8

D) 6

25 / 100

Y) Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?

A) The F1 layer

B) The F2 layer

C) The E layer

D) The D layer

26 / 100

Z) How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

A) lt is independent of frequency

B) lt increases

C) lt reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz

D) lt decreases

27 / 100

AA) The current through a 100 ohm resistor is to 120ma. What is the potential difference across the resistor?

A) 12 volt

B) 83,33 volt

C) 120 volt

D) 8,33 volt

28 / 100

AB) Which of the following is an advantage of a Class C amplifier?

A) High efficiency

B) No need for tuned circuits

C) Linear operation

D) All of these answers are correct

29 / 100

AC) Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna driven element?

A) 1/4 wavelength

B) 3/4 wavelength

C) 1/2 wavelenBlh

D) 2/3 wavelength

30 / 100

AD) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

A) Reluctance

B) Conductance

C) Reactance

D) Admittance

31 / 100

AE) The correct Q Code for "change frequency to" is

A) QTH

B) QSX

C) QSR

D) QSY

32 / 100

AF) Which is the correct Q Code for "shall I stop sending?"

A) QRV

B) QRL

C) QRK

D) QTH

33 / 100

AG) How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the "S" meter reading on a
distant receiver from 58 to 59?

A) Approximately 2 times

B) Approximately 5 times

C) Approximately 3 times

D) Approximately 4 times

34 / 100

AH) QRP means

A) Address is

B) High Power

C) Low Power

D) Close down

35 / 100

AI) Which is the correct Q Code for "can you acknowledge receipt?"

A) QRL

B) QRK

C) QSL

D) QRV

36 / 100

AJ) Which type of integrated circuit is an operational amplifier?

A) Digital

B) Analog

C) MMIC

D) Programmable

37 / 100

AK) Where an S-meter is generally found?

A) ln a SWR bridge

B) ln a conductance bridge

C) ln a transmitter

D) ln a receiver

38 / 100

AL) What is the value of each resistor if three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of
resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms?

A) 90 ohms

B) 1500 ohms

C) 150 ohms

D) 175 ohms

39 / 100

AM) What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

A) Magnetizing current

B) Direct current

C) Excitation current

D) Stabilizing current

40 / 100

AN) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 re8ion?

A) 180 miles

B) 1,200 miles

C) 12,000 miles

D) 2,500 miles

41 / 100

AO) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 2m amateur band?

A) 144000-145000 kHz

B) 142000-146000 kHz

C) 145000-145995 kHz

D) 144000-146000 kHz

42 / 100

AP) Which of the followin8 emission types are permissible while operating HF mobile?

A) SSB

B) FM

C) CW

D) All of these choices are correct

43 / 100

AQ) ln what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?

A) dB per 1000 ft

B) ohms per 1000 ft

C) dB per 100 ft

D) ohms per 100 ft

44 / 100

AR) Which of the following is a characteristic of a class A amplifier?

A) Low distortion

B) Low standby power

C) No need for bias

D) High efficiency

45 / 100

AS) What does MUF stand for?

A) The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

B) The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

C) The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

D) The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

46 / 100

AT) What does an S-meter measure?

A) Conductance

B) Received signal strength

C) Transmitter power output

D) lmpedance

47 / 100

AU) What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a transmitted signal?

A) The local oscillator of the transmitter

B) The transmitter balanced mixer output

C) The audio input of the transmitter

D) The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

48 / 100

AV) What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A) An ohmmeter

B) A signalgenerator

C) An ammeter

D) An oscilloscope

49 / 100

AW) What are the propagation path or wave for HF radio contact?

A) Both ground wave and sky wave propagation

B) None of the above

C) Only ground wave propagation

D) Only sky wave propagation

50 / 100

AX) What are the two types of transistor we use in general?

A) NPP and PNP

B) NPN and PNP

C) PNP and PMP

D) NPP and NPN

51 / 100

AY) The resistance value of 1200 ohms can be expressed as:

A) 1.2 Mega ohms

B) L2 kilo ohms

C) 0.12 Mega ohms

D) 1.2 kilo ohms

52 / 100

AZ) What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

A) 24.6 feet

B) 8.2 feet

C) 32.8 feet

D) 16.4 feet

53 / 100

BA) Amateur radio stations do not have to keep a log book:

A) For 20m transmissions

B) For 10m transmissions

C) For 144 MHz or 430 MHz transmissions

D) For 80m transmissions

54 / 100

BB) QRT means:

A) Fading

B) Stand By

C) Low Power

D) Close down

55 / 100

BC) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 4Om amateur band?

A) 7000-7100 kHz

B) 7000-7350 kHz

C) 14000-14350 kHz

D) 7000-7150 kHz

56 / 100

BD) identify the correct Q code for "Send slower"

A) QRO

B) QRQ

C) QSP

D) QRS

57 / 100

BE) What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twin lead?

A) 300 ohms

B) 50 ohms

C) 100 ohms

D) 75 ohms

58 / 100

BF) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

A) Reactance

B) Conductance

C) Reluctance

D) Admittance

59 / 100

BG) Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

A) octal

B) PL-2s9

C) RJ-11

D) DB-2s

60 / 100

BH) Why we use a linear RF amplifier?

A) To fine tune the out put RF power of the transmitter

B) To increase the out put RF power ofthe antenna

C) To increase the out put RF power of the transmitter

D) To decrease the out put RF power of the transmitter

61 / 100

BI) What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?

A) Phase modulation

B) Amplitude modulation

C) Pulse modulation

D) Multiplex modulation

62 / 100

BJ) Which measurement of an AC signal is equivalent to a DC voltage of the same value?

A) The RMS value

B) The reciprocal of the RMS value

C) The peak value

D) The peak-to-pea k value

63 / 100

BK) Which of the following might be used to process si8nals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?

A) lF amplifier

B) Filter

C) Carrier oscillator

D) RF amplifier

64 / 100

BL) What are the upper and lower frequencies in the 2Om amateur band?

A) 14000-14350 kHz

B) 14300-14000 kHz

C) 14350-14250 kHz

D) 14450-14150 kHz

65 / 100

BM) identify the correct Q code for "your signals are fading"

A) QSB

B) QSL

C) QRN

D) QRO

66 / 100

BN) Repeaters only normally operate on which mode:

A) FM

B) AM

C) SSB

D) CW

67 / 100

BO) The Q code for "standby" is:

A) QRS

B) QRM

C) QRN

D) QRX

68 / 100

BP) What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

A) Heterodyning

B) Synthesizing

C) Cancellation

D) Multiplying

69 / 100

BQ) Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

A) 30 amperes

B) 100 amperes

C) 15 amperes

D) 60 amperes

70 / 100

BR) Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?

A) Bypass capacitor

B) Bypass inductor

C) Forward-biased diode

D) Reverse-biased diode

71 / 100

BS) What component should be added to a capacitor in a circuit to increase the circuit capacitance?

A) A capacitor in series

B) A resistor in series

C) An inductor in series

D) A capacitor in parallel

72 / 100

BT) What is the correct formula for Ohms law

A) V=R*l

B) R=V*l

C) None of the above

D) l=V*R

73 / 100

BU) What we can do by a Spectrum Analyzer?

A) We can measure a single frequency

B) We can measure multiple frequency at the same time

C) We can locate a hidden transmltter

D) We can measure the RF power

74 / 100

BV) Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?

A) Aluminum nitride

B) Doped Silicon

C) Nickel Hydride

D) Doped Platinum

75 / 100

BW) Which of the following is the best instrument to use to check the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A) A field-strength meter

B) A wavemeter

C) A sidetone monitor

D) A monitoring oscilloscope

76 / 100

BX) Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

A) The F2 layer

B) The E layer

C) The F1 layer

D) The D layer

77 / 100

BY) What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

A) 0.33 m icrofarads

B) 0.30 microfarads

C) 33.3 microfa rads

D) 300 microfarads

78 / 100

BZ) Which of the following techniques is used to neutralize an RF amplifier?

A) Feed-forward compensation

B) Feed-forwa rd cancellation

C) Negative feedback

D) Positive feedback

79 / 100

CA) Which the correct Q-code is for "Are you ready?"

A) QRK

B) QRG

C) QRV

D) QRL

80 / 100

CB) what is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a silicon diode?

A) 1.0 volts

B) 0.1volt

C) 0.3 volts

D) 0.7 volts

81 / 100

CC) What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

A) 10.5 feet

B) 8.2 feet

C) 16.4 feet

D) 21.0 feet

82 / 100

CD) What does LUF stand for?

A) The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

B) The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

C) The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

D) The Longest Universal Function for communicat;ons between two points

83 / 100

CE) What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

A) 263.6 feet

B) 42.2 feet

C) 131.8 feet

D) 84.5 feet

84 / 100

CF) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

A) 90 degrees

B) 270 deBrees

C) 360 degrees

D) 1.80 degrees

85 / 100

CG) What is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial cables used for antenna feedlines at amateur stations?

A) 500 and 750 ohms

B) 80 and 100 ohms

C) 25 and 30 ohms

D) 50 and 75 ohms

86 / 100

CH) Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

A) Type SMA

B) DB-9

C) Type N

D) PL-259

87 / 100

CI) what is the correct Q Code for "what is your location?"

A) QRP

B) QTH

C) QSY

D) QSP

88 / 100

CJ) What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?

A) 10000 ohms

B) 5.9 ohms

C) 0.17 ohms

D) 80 ohms

89 / 100

CK) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 8Om amateur band?

A) 3400-3700 kHz

B) 3500-380O kHz

C) 3500-350O kHz

D) 3000-3800 kHz

90 / 100

CL) What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

A) To minimize SWR at the antenna

B) To minimize SWR in the transmission line

C) To reduce power dissipation in the transmitter

D) To maximize the transfer of power

91 / 100

CM) identify the correct Q code for "are you being interfered with?"

A) QRX

B) QRM

C) QRN

D) QSL

92 / 100

CN) What unit is used to measure impedance?

A) Ampere

B) Watt

C) Volt

D) ohm

93 / 100

CO) What component should be added to an inductor in a circuit to increase the circuit inductance?

A) A resistor in parallel

B) An inductor in series

C) An inductor in parallel

D) A capacitor in series

94 / 100

CP) Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A) A Pi-network

B) All of these choices are correct

C) A length of transmission line

D) A transformer

95 / 100

CQ) What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far foi grorind
wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?

A) Short-path skip

B) Sporadic-E skip

C) Scatter

D) Ground wave

96 / 100

CR) What is the total resistance of three 100-0hm resistors in parallel?

A) 33.3 ohms

B) 300 ohms

C) 0.33 ohms

D) 0.30 ohms

97 / 100

CS) What is the output of a two-input NAND gate, Given both inputs are "one"?

A) Two

B) Minus One

C) Zero

D) One

98 / 100

CT) what is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

A) Frequency convolution

B) Frequency modulation

C) Frequency transformation

D) Frequency conversion

99 / 100

CU) A potentiometer is a

A) Capacitor

B) Variable resistor

C) Meter

D) Battery

100 / 100

CV) Will you tell me my exact frequency may be transmitted as:

A) QRU

B) QSL

C) QRG

D) QRI

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Ham Exam

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Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-3

1 / 71

A) Where PSK signals are generally found on the 20 meter band?

A) ln the high end of the phone band

B) Around 14.070 MHz

C) ln the weak signal portion of the band

D) ln the low end of the phone band

2 / 71

B) Which emission mode must be used to obtain assistance during a disaster?

A) Only SSB

B) Any mode

C) Only SSB and CW

D) Only CW

3 / 71

C) What is a band plan?

A) A guideline from the ITU for making amateur frequency band allocations

B) A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

C) A guideline from the BTRC for making amateur frequency band allocations

D) A voluntary guideline for band use beyond the divisions established by the BTRC

4 / 71

D) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions transmitted on frequency bands below 28 MHz?

A) 19.6 kilobaud

B) 1200 baud

C) 300 baud

D) 56 kilobaud

5 / 71

E) what is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a
station?

A) Azimuthal projection

B) Stereographic projection

C) Polar projection

D) Mercator projection

6 / 71

F) What should you do if a CW station sends "eRS" when usinB Morse code?

A) Repeat everything twice.

B) lncrease your power

C) Send slower

D) Change frequency

7 / 71

G) What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?

A) Try a different frequency shift

B) Try the other sideband

C) Try a higher frequency

D) Try a different antenna polarization

8 / 71

H) What is measured by the solar flux index?

A) The density of the sun's magnetic field

B) The radio energy emitted by the sun

C) The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth

D) A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

9 / 71

I) Which of the followinB statement is true of VOX operation?

A) The received signal is more natural sounding

B) Frequency spectrum is conserved

C) The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced

D) VOX allows "hands free" operation

10 / 71

J) What does the term zero beat mean in CW operation?

A) Sending without error

B) M atch ing the frequency of the transmitting station

C) Matching the speed of the transmitting station

D) Operating split to avoid lnterference on frequency

11 / 71

K) What lan8uage must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than
English in making a contact?

A) The language being used for the contact

B) Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU

C) Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country

D) English

12 / 71

L) Which of the following 20 meter band segments is most often used for most data transmissions?

A) 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

B) 14.000 - 14.050 MHz

C) 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

D) 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

13 / 71

M) Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid
harmful interference to other users

A) When using a band where the amateur service is secondary

B) When operating within one mile of an BTRC Monitoring Station

C) When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

D) All ofthese answers are correct

14 / 71

N) What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?

A) Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations

B) Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response

C) Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

D) Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign

15 / 71

O) What is the K-index?

A) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

B) A measure ofthe stability ofthe sun's magnetic field

C) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the su rface of the sun

D) A measure of the short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field

16 / 71

P) With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A) The frequency must be posted on the lnternet or published in a national periodical

B) The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

C) ldentification must be in Morse Code

D) There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location

17 / 71

Q) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) between the two stations s 16 MHz?

A) 40 meters

B) 80 meters

C) 20 meters

D) 2 meters

18 / 71

R) What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

A) 2000 watts PEP output

B) 1000 watts PEP output

C) 1500 watts PEP output

D) 200 watts PEP output

19 / 71

S) Which of the following is prohibited by the BTRC Rules for amateur radio stations?

A) The use of obscene or indecent words

B) Transmission of music as the primary program material during a contact

C) Transmission of false or deceptive messages or signals

D) All of these answers are correct

20 / 71

T) Which sideband is commonly used on the 150,75, and 40 meter bands?

A) Lower Sideband

B) Double Sideband

C) Vestigial Sideband

D) U pper Sideba nd

21 / 71

U) what is the standard bandwidth for narrow band FM transmission in VHF and UHF

A) 25 KHz

B) s0 kHz

C) 12.5 KHz

D) 20 kHz

22 / 71

V) What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message?

A) SK

B) KN

C) AR

D) BK

23 / 71

W) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on another
channel?

A) Relay Station

B) Beacon Station

C) Repeater Station

D) Telecommmand Station

24 / 71

X) How long does it take charged particles from Coronal Mass Ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?

A) 14 days

B) 20 to 40 hours

C) 28 days

D) The effect is instantaneous

25 / 71

Y) What is QRP operation?

A) Traffic Relay Procedure net operation

B) Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

C) Remote Piloted Model control

D) Low power transmit operation, typically about 5 watts

26 / 71

Z) What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A) Only frequencies that are within your operating privile8es

B) Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

C) Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicatinB the distress message

D) 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day

27 / 71

AA) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?

A) 300 baud

B) 56 kilobaud

C) 1200 baud

D) 19.6 kilobaud

28 / 71

AB) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2 meter bands?

A) 1200 baud

B) 19.6 kilobaud

C) 56 kilobaud

D) 300 baud

29 / 71

AC) Which frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar
activity?

A) Frequencies above 20 MHz

B) Frequencies at or above 10 MHz

C) Frequencies below 3.5 MHz

D) Frequencies near 3.5 MHz

30 / 71

AD) Which sideband is most commonly used for phone communications on the bands above 20 meters?

A) Double Sideba nd

B) Vestigial Sideband

C) Lower Sideband

D) Upper Sideband

31 / 71

AE) Which mode should be selected when using a SSB transmitter with an Audio Frequency Shift Keying (AFSK) RTTY signal?

A) cw

B) LSB

C) DSB

D) USB

32 / 71

AF) What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A) 425 Hz

B) 85 Hz

C) 170 Hz

D) 8s0 Hz

33 / 71

AG) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (eSK)?

A) Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

B) Automatic keyers are used to send morse code instead of hand keys

C) an operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmissioon

D) lncoming signals are received between transmitted code character elements

34 / 71

AH) When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

A) At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

B) When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

C) When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

D) When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

35 / 71

AI) Which of the following statement is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode?

A) lt reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies

B) lt is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz 50.

C) lt is a form offrequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized

D) lt is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed

36 / 71

AJ) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

B) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

C) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

D) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

37 / 71

AK) Which of the following operating restrictions applies to amateur radio stations as a secondary service in the 60 meter band?

A) They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier only

B) They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other radio services

C) They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth

D) They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize harmful interference to other radio services

38 / 71

AL) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) U pper Sideba nd

B) Lower Sideband

C) Double Sideband

D) Vestigial Sideband

39 / 71

AM) Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compa red to other voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

A) Less sub.iect to static crashes (atmospherics)

B) Less bandwidth used and high power efficiency

C) Ease of tuning on receive

D) Very high fidelity voice modulation

40 / 71

AN) How long is the typicalsunspot cycle?

A) Approximately 28 days

B) Between 20 and 40 hours

C) Approximately 11 years

D) Approximately 8 minutes

41 / 71

AO) What does the Q signal "Q51" mean when operating CW?

A) We have worked before

B) Send slower

C) We have already confirmed by card

D) I acknowledge receipt

42 / 71

AP) What minimum frequency separation between CW signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) 3 to 6 kHz

B) 1to 3 kHz

C) 5 to 50 Hz

D) 150 to 500 Hz

43 / 71

AQ) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

A) Listening for novice stations

B) Closing station now

C) Operating full break-in

D) Listening only for a specific station or stations

44 / 71

AR) Whlch of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated with VOX circuitry?

A) VOX Sensitivity

B) All of these choices are correct

C) VOX Delay

D) Anti-VOX

45 / 71

AS) What minimum frequency separation between SSB signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) Approximately 10 kHz

B) Approximately 3 kHz

C) Between 150 and 500 Hz

D) Approximately 6 kHz

46 / 71

AT) What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?

A) lt is much higher speed than RTTY

B) lt is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes

C) lt offers good performance in weak signal environment without error correction

D) lt has built-in error correction

47 / 71

AU) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A) At the summer solstice

B) Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

C) Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

D) At any point in the solar cycle

48 / 71

AV) What should you do if you notice increasing interference from other activity on a frequency you are using?

A) Tell the interfering stations to change frequency since you were there first

B) Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

C) Turn on your amplifier

D) Move your contact to another frequenc"y

49 / 71

AW) When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

A) Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the BTRC

B) To control a space station

C) During a declared communications emerBency

D) Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

50 / 71

AX) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by BTRC rules for amateur radio stations when operating on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

A) 5.6 kHz

B) 2.8 kHz

C) +/-2.8 kHz

D) 3 kHz

51 / 71

AY) What does the Q signal "QRV" mean when operating CW?

A) You are sending too fast

B) I am quitting for the day

C) I am ready to receive messages

D) There is interference on the frequency

52 / 71

AZ) Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A) An omnidirectional antenna

B) A unidirectional antenna

C) A bi-directional antenna

D) An isotropic antenna

53 / 71

BA) What is the best speed to use answerinB a CQ in Morse Code?

A) The speed at which you are most comfortable copying

B) A slow speed until contact is established

C) The speed at which the CQ was sent

D) 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

54 / 71

BB) What does the abbreviation "MFsK" stand for?

A) Manual Frequency 5hift Keying

B) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying

C) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

D) Manual Frequency Sideband Keying

55 / 71

BC) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

B) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

C) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

D) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

56 / 71

BD) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Double Sideband

B) U pper Sideba nd

C) Lower Sideband

D) Vestigial Sideband

57 / 71

BE) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful I contact if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) between the two stations is 22 MHz?

A) 10 meters

B) 20 meters

C) 40 meters

D) L5 meters

58 / 71

BF) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

B) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

C) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

D) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

59 / 71

BG) What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicates?

A) The caller is listeninB for a station in Germany

B) This is a form of distress call

C) The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

D) A general callfor any station

60 / 71

BH) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?

A) Keep frequency clear

B) Listening only for a specific station or stations

C) Closing station

D) Operating fu ll break-in

61 / 71

BI) How many data bits are sent in a single PSK3l character?

A) 5

B) The number varies

C) 7

D) 8

62 / 71

BJ) What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean when operating CW?

A) Qu itting operation

B) Zero beat my signal

C) Send faster

D) Slow down

63 / 71

BK) What minimum frequency separation between 170 Hz shift RTTY signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) Approximately 3 kHz

B) 170 Hz

C) 60 Hz

D) 250 to 500 Hz

64 / 71

BL) When may the BTRC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations?

A) When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

B) When the country goes under a WAR

C) When they declare a temporary state of communication emer8ency

D) Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmittinB

65 / 71

BM) How does BTRC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not covered by the rules?

A) All of these answers are correct

B) ln conformance with amateur radio custom

C) ln conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

D) ln conformance with the rules of the IARU

66 / 71

BN) lf the H F radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good on the 24-M H z and ].B-MH:- bands for several days, when might you expect a similar condition to occur?

A) 28 days later

B) 7 days later

C) 14 days later

D) 90 days later

67 / 71

BO) Which of the following describes Baudot RTTY?

A) 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits

B) Two ma.lor operating modes are SELCAL and LISTEN

C) Utilizes error detection and correction

D) 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits

68 / 71

BP) What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling informatlon?

A) Directory

B) Footer

C) Preamble

D) Header

69 / 71

BQ) How radio communications are usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

A) HF communications are disturbed

B) VHF/UHF ducting is improved

C) VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

D) HF communications are improved

70 / 71

BR) Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the Amateur Rules?

A) Automatic ldentification of Repeaters

B) Observation of propagation and reception, or other related activities

C) Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

D) ldentifying net frequencies

71 / 71

BS) Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in assisting emergency relief
operations during a disaster?

A) Only a RACES net control operator

B) Only official emergency stations may transmit during a disaster

C) only a person holding an BTRC issued amateur operator license

D) Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Qustion Bank -2018

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Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2018-1

1 / 49

A) With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A) The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

B) The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical

C) Identification must be in Morse Code

D) There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location

2 / 49

B) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for radio-
teletype (RTTY) operation?

A) Follow generally accepted band plans for RTTY operation

B) Select a frequency in the lower end of the phone band

C) Select a frequency in the upper end of the phone band

D) Call CQ in Morse code before attempting to establish a contact in RTTY

3 / 49

C) When normal communications systems are not available, what means may an amateur station use to
provide essential communications when there is an immediate threat to the safety of human life or the
protection of property?

A) Any means of radio communication at its disposal

B) Only those means of radio communication for which the station is licensed

C) Any means, but only on to RACES recognized emergency stations

D) Only transmissions sent on internationally recognized emergency channels

4 / 49

D) Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other voice modes
on the HF amateur bands?

A) Less bandwidth used and high power efficiency

B) Ease of tuning on receive

C) Very high fidelity voice modulation

D) Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics)

5 / 49

E) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?

A) 300 baud

B) 1200 baud

C) 56 kilobaud

D) 19.6 kilobaud

6 / 49

F) What minimum frequency separation between CW signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) 1 to 3 kHz

B) 3 to 6 kHz

C) 150 to 500 Hz

D) 5 to 50 Hz

7 / 49

G) When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

A) When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

B) At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

C) When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

D) When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

8 / 49

H) What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz for Intermediate
class?

A) 1500 watts PEP output

B) 1000 watts PEP output

C) 100 watts PEP output

D) 2000 watts PEP output

9 / 49

I) What action should be taken if the frequency on which a net normally meets is in use just before the
net begins?

A) Cancel the net for that day

B) Reduce your output power and start the net as usual

C) Ask the stations if the net may use the frequency, or move the net to a nearby clear frequency if necessary

D) Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you

10 / 49

J) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by BTRC rules for amateur radio stations when operating
on USB frequencies in the 60--meter band?

A) +/-2.8 kHz

B) 3 kHz

C) 5.6 kHz

D) 2.8 kHz

11 / 49

K) What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when calling CQ using Morse code or CW?

A) Call CQ at low power first; if there is no indication of interference then increase power as necessary

B) Send the letter "V" 12 times and then listen for a response

C) Send "QRL? de" followed by your callsign and listen for a response

D) Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference with contacts already in progress

12 / 49

L) How does the BTRC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not covered by the rules?

A) In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

B) All of these answers are correct

C) In conformance with amateur radio custom

D) In conformance with the rules of the IARU

13 / 49

M) What should you do if you notice increasing interference from other activity on a frequency you are
using?

A) Move your contact to another frequency

B) Tell the interfering stations to change frequency since you were there first

C) Turn on your amplifier

D) Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

14 / 49

N) Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode?

A) It reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies

B) It is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz 50.

C) It is a form of frequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized

D) It is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed

15 / 49

O) Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid
harmful interference to other users

A) When using a band where the amateur service is secondary

B) When operating within one mile of an BTRC Monitoring Station

C) When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

D) All of these answers are correct

16 / 49

P) What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicates?

A) A general call for any station

B) The caller is listening for a station in Germany

C) This is a form of distress call

D) The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

17 / 49

Q) What is the standard bandwidth for narrow band FM transmission in VHF and UHF

A) 50 kHz

B) 25 KHz

C) 12.5 KHz

D) 20 kHz

18 / 49

R) Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in assisting emergency relief
operations during a disaster?

A) Only a person holding an BTRC issued amateur operator license

B) Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

C) Only a RACES net control operator

D) Only official emergency stations may transmit during a disaster

19 / 49

S) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions transmitted on frequency bands below
28 MHz?

A) 300 baud

B) 1200 baud

C) 56 kilobaud

D) 19.6 kilobaud

20 / 49

T) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter
band?

A) 1200 baud

B) 19.6 kilobaud

C) 300 baud

D) 56 kilobaud

21 / 49

U) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2
meter bands?

A) 300 baud

B) 1200 baud

C) 19.6 kilobaud

D) 56 kilobaud

22 / 49

V) When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

A) Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

B) Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the BTRC

C) To control a space station

D) During a declared communications emergency

23 / 49

W) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for Slow- Scan
TV (SSTV) operation?

A) Select a frequency in the portion of the band set aside for digital operation

B) Follow generally accepted band plans for SSTV operation

C) Transmit your callsign as an SSTV image for 1 minute to ensure a clear frequency

D) Transmit only on lower sideband

24 / 49

X) Which of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated with VOX circuitry?

A) VOX Sensitivity

B) VOX Delay

C) Anti-VOX

D) All of these choices are correct

25 / 49

Y) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Upper Sideband

B) Double Sideband

C) Lower Sideband

D) Vestigial Sideband

26 / 49

Z) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for HF PSK
operation?

A) Select a frequency in the upper end of the phone band

B) Follow generally accepted band plans for PSK operation

C) Call CQ in Morse code before attempting to establish a contact in PSK

D) Select a frequency in the lower end of the phone band

27 / 49

AA) What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?

A) Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign

B) Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations

C) Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

D) Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response

28 / 49

AB) Which of the following is a permissible third party communication during routine amateur radio
operations?

A) Sending a business message for another person, as long it is for a non-profit organization

B) Sending a message to a third party through a foreign station, as long as that person is a licensed amateur radio operator

C) Sending a business message for another person, as long as the control operator has no pecuniary interest in the message

D) Permitting an unlicensed person to speak to a licensed amateur anywhere in the world

29 / 49

AC) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on another
channel?

A) Beacon Station

B) Telecommmand Station

C) Relay Station

D) Repeater Station

30 / 49

AD) What is the standard repeater shifting in UHF band?

A) 90 KHz

B) 600 KHz

C) 1 MHz

D) 5 MHz

31 / 49

AE) What must you do if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary
service interferes with your contact?

A) Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference

B) Stop transmitting at once and/or move to a clear frequency

C) Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference

D) Notify the BTRC's spectrum management department of the interference

32 / 49

AF) What is the standard repeater shifting in VHF band?

A) 1 MHz

B) 900 KHz

C) 600 KHz

D) 5 MHz

33 / 49

AG) Which of the following operating restrictions applies to amateur radio stations as a secondary service in
the 60 meter band?

A) They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth

B) They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other radio services

C) They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier, only

D) They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize harmful interference to other radio services

34 / 49

AH) What is a band plan?

A) A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

B) A guideline from the ITU for making amateur frequency band allocations

C) A guideline from the BTRC for making amateur frequency band allocations

D) A voluntary guideline for band use beyond the divisions established by the BTRC

35 / 49

AI) Which amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?

A) 11 meters

B) None

C) 12 meters

D) 10 meters

36 / 49

AJ) Which of the following is prohibited by the BTRC Rules for amateur radio stations?

A) Transmission of false or deceptive messages or signals

B) The use of obscene or indecent words

C) All of these answers are correct

D) Transmission of music as the primary program material during a contact

37 / 49

AK) When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Intermediate Class
control operator?

A) Only if the 10 meter control operator holds at least a General class license

B) Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

C) Under no circumstances

D) Only during an BTRC-declared General state of communications emergency

38 / 49

AL) Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation?

A) The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced

B) Frequency spectrum is conserved

C) VOX allows "hands free" operation

D) The received signal is more natural sounding

39 / 49

AM) What limitations, other than the 1500 watt PEP limit, are placed on transmitter power in the 14 MHz
band?

A) Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

B) Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts

C) Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

D) Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

40 / 49

AN) Which sideband is most commonly used for phone communications on the bands above 20 meters?

A) Double Sideband

B) Vestigial Sideband

C) Lower Sideband

D) Upper Sideband

41 / 49

AO) What minimum frequency separation between SSB signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) Approximately 6 kHz

B) Approximately 3 kHz

C) Between 150 and 500 Hz

D) Approximately 10 kHz

42 / 49

AP) Which sideband is commonly used on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?

A) Lower Sideband

B) Double Sideband

C) Upper Sideband

D) Vestigial Sideband

43 / 49

AQ) Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an
amateur station?

A) The third party is a person previously licensed in the amateur service whose license had been revoked

B) The third party is not a Bangladeshi citizen

C) The third party is a licensed amateur

D) The third party is speaking in a language other than English, French, or Spanish

44 / 49

AR) Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the Amateur Rules?

A) Identifying Net Frequencies

B) Transmission of bulletins of General interest to amateur radio licensees

C) Automatic Identification of Repeaters

D) Observation of propagation and reception, or other related activities

45 / 49

AS) What minimum frequency separation between 170 Hz shift RTTY signals should be allowed to minimize
interference?

A) 250 to 500 Hz

B) 60 Hz

C) 170 Hz

D) Approximately 3 kHz

46 / 49

AT) Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an
uncoordinated repeater?

A) Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference

B) The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

C) The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

D) The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

47 / 49

AU) What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ using
phone?

A) Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress

B) Call CQ at low power first and if there is no indication of interference, increase power as necessary

C) Ask if the frequency is in use, say your callsign, and listen for a response

D) Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ to avoid interference to contacts that maybe in progress

48 / 49

AV) What should be done if a net is about to begin on a frequency you and another station are using?

A) Reduce power to avoid interfering with the net

B) Move to a different frequency as a courtesy to the net

C) Tell the net that they must to move to another frequency

D) Pause between transmissions to give the net a chance to change frequency

49 / 49

AW) What language must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than
English in making a contact?

A) The language being used for the contact

B) English

C) Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU

D) Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country

Your score is

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1 / 50

A) When may the BTRC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations?

A) When the country goes under a WAR

B) Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

C) When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

D) When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

2 / 50

B) Which of the following is required by the BTRC rules when operating in HF band?

A) You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

B) You must keep a log of all third party traffic

C) If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

D) You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

3 / 50

C) What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant
station?

A) Polar projection

B) Azimuthal projection

C) Stereographic projection

D) Mercator projection

4 / 50

D) What is the A-index?

A) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun

B) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

C) An indicator of the long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field

D) The amount of polarization of the sun's electric field

5 / 50

E) What can be an effect of a geomagnetic storm on radio-wave propagation?

A) Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

B) Improved high-latitude HF propagation

C) Improved chances of UHF ducting

D) Improved ground-wave propagation

6 / 50

F) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

A) Operating full break-in

B) Listening only for a specific station or stations

C) Listening for novice stations

D) Closing station now

7 / 50

G) What is measured by the solar flux index?

A) The density of the sun's magnetic field

B) The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth

C) A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

D) The radio energy emitted by the sun

8 / 50

H) What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A) 170 Hz

B) 85 Hz

C) 850 Hz

D) 425 Hz

9 / 50

I) Which of the following describes Baudot RTTY?

A) 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits

B) 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits

C) Two major operating modes are SELCAL and LISTEN

D) Utilizes error detection and correction

10 / 50

J) What is a geomagnetic disturbance?

A) A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole

B) Ripples in the ionosphere

C) A sudden drop in the solar-flux index

D) A significant change in the Earth's magnetic field over a short period of time

11 / 50

K) What is the effect on radio communications when sunspot numbers are high?

A) Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication

B) High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

C) Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is diminished

D) Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced

12 / 50

L) What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message?

A) KN

B) BK

C) SK

D) AR

13 / 50

M) Where PSK signals are generally found on the 20 meter band?

A) In the weak signal portion of the band

B) In the low end of the phone band

C) Around 14.070 MHz

D) In the high end of the phone band

14 / 50

N) What does the term zero beat mean in CW operation?

A) Sending without error

B) Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

C) Matching the frequency of the transmitting station

D) Matching the speed of the transmitting station

15 / 50

O) Frequencies may be used by an amateur station to obtain assistance when in distress?

A) Any United Nations approved frequency

B) Any frequency authorized to the control operator

C) Only frequencies in the 80 meter band

D) Only frequencies in the 40 meter band

16 / 50

P) What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance (SID) have on the daytime ionospheric propagation
of HF radio waves?

A) It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths

B) It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

C) None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

D) It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

17 / 50

Q) What information should be given to a station answering a distress transmission?

A) The name of the local emergency coordinator

B) The location and nature of the emergency

C) The time that the emergency occurred and the local weather

D) The ITU region and grid square locator of the emergency

18 / 50

R) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?

A) Operating full break-in

B) Closing station

C) Keep frequency clear

D) Listening only for a specific station or stations

19 / 50

S) What does the Q signal "QSL" mean when operating CW?

A) I acknowledge receipt

B) We have already confirmed by card

C) Send slower

D) We have worked before

20 / 50

T) What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A) 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day

B) Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

C) Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

D) Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

21 / 50

U) Which of the following information must a licensee retain as part of their station records?

A) Antenna gain calculations or manufacturer's data for antennas used on 60 meters

B) A copy of all third party messages sent through your station

C) The call sign of other amateurs operating your station

D) A record of all contacts made with stations in foreign countries

22 / 50

V) What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

A) Band and/or frequency of the contact

B) Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

C) Date and time of contact

D) All of these choices are correct

23 / 50

W) What skills learned during Fox Hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

A) Identification of different call signs

B) Identification of out of band operation

C) Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

D) Direction-finding skills used to locate stations violating BTRC Rules

24 / 50

X) What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the BTRC?

A) Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

B) Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

C) Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

D) Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

25 / 50

Y) What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

A) To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

B) To provide emergency and public safety communications

C) To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

D) To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules

26 / 50

Z) What is the solar-flux index?

A) Another name for the American sunspot number

B) A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions

C) A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth

D) A measure of solar activity at 10.7 cm

27 / 50

AA) When are you prohibited from helping a station in distress?

A) When the station is not another amateur station

B) When that station is not transmitting on amateur frequencies

C) When the station in distress offers no call sign

D) You are never prohibited from helping any station in distress

28 / 50

AB) What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS" when using Morse code?

A) Increase your power

B) Repeat everything twice.

C) Send slower

D) Change frequency

29 / 50

AC) Which latitudes have propagation paths that are more sensitive to geomagnetic disturbances?

A) Those at or very near to the equator

B) All paths are affected equally

C) Those greater than 45 degrees North or South latitude

D) Those between 5 and 45 degrees North or South latitude

30 / 50

AD) What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

A) Header

B) Footer

C) Preamble

D) Directory

31 / 50

AE) Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the BTRC doesn't require it?

A) The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

B) The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

C) To help with a reply if the BTRC requests information on who was control operator of your station at a given date and time

D) The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

32 / 50

AF) What is the K-index?

A) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

B) A measure of the short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field

C) A measure of the stability of the sun's magnetic field

D) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun

33 / 50

AG) What is QRP operation?

A) Traffic Relay Procedure net operation

B) Low power transmit operation, typically about 5 watts

C) Remote Piloted Model control

D) Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

34 / 50

AH) What does the Q signal "QRV" mean when operating CW?

A) There is interference on the frequency

B) I am quitting for the day

C) You are sending too fast

D) I am ready to receive messages

35 / 50

AI) When is an amateur station prevented from using any means at its disposal to assist another station in
distress?

A) Only on authorized HF frequencies

B) Only when authorized by the BTRC rule

C) Only when transmitting in RACES

D) Never

36 / 50

AJ) How long is the typical sunspot cycle?

A) Approximately 8 minutes

B) Between 20 and 40 hours

C) Approximately 28 days

D) Approximately 11 years

37 / 50

AK) What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a
station in distress break in?

A) Immediately cease all transmissions

B) Continue your communication because you were on frequency first

C) Change to a different frequency

D) Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

38 / 50

AL) Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A) An omnidirectional antenna

B) An isotropic antenna

C) A bi-directional antenna

D) A unidirectional antenna

39 / 50

AM) What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric
disturbance?

A) Try the other sideband

B) Try a different frequency shift

C) Try a higher frequency

D) Try a different antenna polarization

40 / 50

AN) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

A) Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

B) Incoming signals are received between transmitted code character elements

C) An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

D) Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

41 / 50

AO) Which emission mode must be used to obtain assistance during a disaster?

A) Only CW

B) Only SSB

C) Any mode

D) Only SSB and CW

42 / 50

AP) What does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for?

A) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

B) Manual Frequency Sideband Keying

C) Manual Frequency Shift Keying

D) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying

43 / 50

AQ) What type of transmission would a control operator be making when transmitting out of the amateur
band without station identification during a life threatening emergency?

A) A third party communication

B) An unidentified transmission

C) A prohibited transmission

D) An auxiliary transmission

44 / 50

AR) Which mode should be selected when using a SSB transmitter with an Audio Frequency Shift Keying
(AFSK) RTTY signal?

A) LSB

B) CW

C) DSB

D) USB

45 / 50

AS) What type of transmissions may an amateur station make during a disaster?

A) Only one-way communications

B) Only transmissions when RACES net is activated

C) Transmissions necessary to meet essential communications needs and to facilitate relief actions

D) Only transmissions from an official emergency station

46 / 50

AT) What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean when operating CW?

A) Slow down

B) Send faster

C) Quitting operation

D) Zero beat my signal

47 / 50

AU) How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

A) 5

B) The number varies

C) 7

D) 8

48 / 50

AV) What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?

A) It is much higher speed than RTTY

B) It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes

C) It offers good performance in weak signal environment without error correction

D) It has built-in error correction

49 / 50

AW) What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code?

A) A slow speed until contact is established

B) 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

C) The speed at which you are most comfortable copying

D) The speed at which the CQ was sent

50 / 50

AX) Which of the following 20 meter band segments is most often used for most data transmissions?

A) 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

B) 14.000 - 14.050 MHz

C) 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

D) 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

Your score is

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Question Bank-2018-3

1 / 50

A) Which frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar
activity?

A) Frequencies at or above 10 MHz

B) Frequencies below 3.5 MHz

C) Frequencies near 3.5 MHz

D) Frequencies above 20 MHz

2 / 50

B) Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A) Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

B) Signals are scattered from the troposphere which is not a good reflector

C) Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

D) Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

3 / 50

C) What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A) A signal generator

B) An oscilloscope

C) An ohmmeter

D) An ammeter

4 / 50

D) What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

A) Significantly better precision for most uses

B) Better for RF measurements

C) Better for measuring computer circuits

D) Faster response

5 / 50

E) What does LUF stand for?

A) The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

B) The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

C) The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points

D) The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

6 / 50

F) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency
(MUF) between the two stations s 16 MHz?

A) 2 meters

B) 20 meters

C) 40 meters

D) 80 meters

7 / 50

G) Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver IF filter created with a DSP as compared to an
analog filter?

A) The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

B) Fewer digital components are required

C) Mixing products are greatly reduced

D) A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

8 / 50

H) What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

A) To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

B) To limit the modulation index

C) To keep the carrier on frequency

D) To eliminate self oscillations

9 / 50

I) Why we use a linear RF amplifier?

A) To decrease the out put RF power of the transmitter

B) To increase the out put RF power of the antenna

C) To fine tune the out put RF power of the transmitter

D) To increase the out put RF power of the transmitter

10 / 50

J) Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) Because it is the highest ionospheric region

C) Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions

D) Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

11 / 50

K) What is a reliable way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support
28-MHz propagation between your station and Western Europe?

A) Listen to WWV propagation signals on the 28 MHz band

B) Send a series of dots on the 28 MHz band and listen for echoes from your signal

C) Listen for signals on a 28 MHz international beacon

D) Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe

12 / 50

L) How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar
coronal holes?

A) HF communications are improved

B) VHF/UHF ducting is improved

C) VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

D) HF communications are disturbed

13 / 50

M) What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the
quality of a transmitted signal?

A) The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

B) The local oscillator of the transmitter

C) The audio input of the transmitter

D) The transmitter balanced mixer output

14 / 50

N) What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?

A) It cancels the effects of positive feedback

B) It reduces incidental grid modulation

C) It controls differential gain

D) It eliminates AC hum from the power supply

15 / 50

O) What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

A) Aurora that can reflect VHF signals

B) Reduced long delayed echoes

C) Improved HF long path propagation

D) Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

16 / 50

P) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the
F2 region?

A) 180 miles

B) 12,000 miles

C) 1,200 miles

D) 2,500 miles

17 / 50

Q) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency
(MUF) between the two stations is 22 MHz?

A) 20 meters

B) 10 meters

C) 40 meters

D) 15 meters

18 / 50

R) When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your location?

A) At midnight during the summer

B) At dusk in the spring and fall

C) At noon during the winter

D) At noon during the summer

19 / 50

S) What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

A) The long path azimuth of a distant station

B) The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

C) The short path azimuth of a distant station

D) The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

20 / 50

T) What are the two types of transistor we use in general?

A) NPN and PNP

B) NPP and PNP

C) PNP and PMP

D) NPP and NPN

21 / 50

U) What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

A) Double hop propagation near the LUF

B) Propagation near the MUF

C) Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

D) Short distance HF propagation using high elevation angles

22 / 50

V) Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies
below 10 MHz?

A) The F2 layer

B) The F1 layer

C) The E layer

D) The D layer

23 / 50

W) What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

A) Percentage of carrier phase shift

B) Carrier and undesired sideband suppression

C) Percentage of frequency modulation

D) Linearity

24 / 50

X) What is the meaning of AVO meter we are using as testing device?

A) Acceleration Volt Ohms measuring meter

B) Accelaration Velocity Ohms measuring meter

C) Ampere Volt Ohms measuring meter

D) Ampere Velocity Ohms measuring meter

25 / 50

Y) Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via
scatter propagation?

A) The signal is heard on a frequency above the maximum usable frequency

B) The communication is during a sunspot maximum

C) The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance

D) The signal is heard on a frequency below the maximum usable frequency

26 / 50

Z) Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during
the day?

A) The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

B) The D layer absorbs these frequencies during daylight hours

C) The F layer absorbs these frequencies during daylight hours

D) The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

27 / 50

AA) How is a noise bridge normally used?

A) It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the antenna's noise figure

B) It is connected between a receiver and an antenna of unknown impedance and is adjusted for minimum noise

C) It is connected between an antenna and ground and tuned for minimum SWR

D) t is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and tuned for minimum SWR

28 / 50

AB) What are the propagation path or wave for HF radio contact.

A) Only ground wave propagation

B) Only sky wave propagation

C) Both ground wave and sky wave propagation

D) None of the above

29 / 50

AC) Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

A) An oscilloscope uses less power

B) Complex impedances can be easily measured

C) Complex waveforms can be measured

D) Input impedance is much lower

30 / 50

AD) How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the "S" meter reading on a
distant receiver from S8 to S9?

A) Approximately 4 times

B) Approximately 5 times

C) Approximately 3 times

D) Approximately 2 times

31 / 50

AE) What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

A) They have a wavering sound

B) All of these choices are correct

C) They have high intelligibility

D) They have very large swings in signal strength

32 / 50

AF) Which of the following is true about ionospheric absorption near the maximum usable frequency
(MUF)?

A) Absorption will be minimum

B) Absorption is greater for vertically polarized waves

C) Absorption is greater for horizontally polarized waves

D) Absorption approaches maximum

33 / 50

AG) Which of the following techniques is used to neutralize an RF amplifier?

A) Negative feedback

B) Positive feedback

C) Feed-forward cancellation

D) Feed-forward compensation

34 / 50

AH) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E
region?

A) 12,000 miles

B) 2,500 miles

C) 1,200 miles

D) 180 miles

35 / 50

AI) What happens to HF propagation when the lowest usable frequency (LUF) exceeds the maximum
usable frequency (MUF)?

A) Double hop propagation along the path is more common

B) No HF radio frequency will support communications over the path

C) HF communications over the path are enhanced at the frequency where the LUF and MUF are the same

D) Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

36 / 50

AJ) How long does it take charged particles from Coronal Mass Ejections to affect radio-wave propagation
on the Earth?

A) 14 days

B) The effect is instantaneous

C) 28 days

D) 20 to 40 hours

37 / 50

AK) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the lowest usable frequency (LUF)?

A) They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

B) They are bent back to the Earth

C) They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

D) They pass through the ionosphere

38 / 50

AL) How is DSP filtering accomplished?

A) By up-converting the signal to VHF

B) By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

C) By using direct signal phasing

D) By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing

39 / 50

AM) What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground
wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?

A) Ground wave

B) Short-path skip

C) Scatter

D) Sporadic-E skip

40 / 50

AN) What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A) The E-region is not present

B) Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several radio wave paths

C) Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

D) The ionospheric layer involved is unstable

41 / 50

AO) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during
daylight hours?

A) At any point in the solar cycle

B) At the summer solstice

C) Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

D) Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

42 / 50

AP) What does MUF stand for?

A) The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

B) The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

C) The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

D) The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

43 / 50

AQ) Which of the following is needed for a DSP IF filter?

A) All of the these answers are correct

B) Digital to Analog Converter

C) A Digital Processor Chip

D) An Analog to Digital Converter

44 / 50

AR) Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?

A) The E layer

B) The F2 layer

C) The D layer

D) The F1 layer

45 / 50

AS) Which of the following is the best instrument to use to check the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A) A wavemeter

B) A field-strength meter

C) A monitoring oscilloscope

D) A sidetone monitor

46 / 50

AT) If the HF radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good on the 24-MHz and 28-MHz bands for several
days, when might you expect a similar condition to occur?

A) 7 days later

B) 14 days later

C) 90 days later

D) 28 days later

47 / 50

AU) What we can do by a Spectrum Analyzer?

A) We can locate a hidden transmitter

B) We can measure a single frequency

C) We can measure the RF power

D) We can measure multiple frequency at the same time

48 / 50

AV) What instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter
adjustments?

A) A field-strength meter

B) An antenna noise bridge

C) A multimeter

D) A Q meter

49 / 50

AW) Which of the following instruments may be used to measure the output of a single-sideband
transmitter when performing a two-tone test of amplitude linearity?

A) An oscilloscope

B) An audio distortion analyzer

C) A directional wattmeter

D) A high impedance audio voltmeter

50 / 50

AX) Which of the following is one use for a DSP in an amateur station?

A) To increase antenna gain

B) To increase antenna bandwidth

C) To provide adequate grounding

D) To remove noise from received signals

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Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2018-4

1 / 50

A) Which of the following can be measured with a directional wattmeter?

A) RF interference

B) Antenna front-to-back ratio

C) Standing Wave Ratio

D) Radio wave propagation

2 / 50

B) Which of the following can cause unintended rectification of RF signal energy and can result in
interference to your station as well as nearby radio and TV receivers?

A) Excessive standing wave ratio (SWR) of the transmission line system

B) Induced voltages in conductors that are in good electrical contact

C) Capacitive coupling of the RF signal to ground

D) Induced currents in conductors that are in poor electrical contact

3 / 50

C) How does a coil react to AC?

A) As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

B) As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

C) As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

D) As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

4 / 50

D) Which of the following is an important reason to have a good station ground?

A) All of these answers are correct

B) To reduce the likelihood of electrical shock

C) To reduce the likelihood of RF burns

D) To reduce interference

5 / 50

E) Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

A) RJ-11

B) PL-259

C) DB-25

D) Octal

6 / 50

F) What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

A) To minimize SWR at the antenna

B) To reduce power dissipation in the transmitter

C) To minimize SWR in the transmission line

D) To maximize the transfer of power

7 / 50

G) Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

A) Harmonics and distortion could result

B) RF susceptance would increase

C) Magnetic flux would increase with frequency

D) Temporary changes of the core permeability could result

8 / 50

H) What is one way a noise bridge might be used?

A) Pre-tuning an antenna tuner

B) Determining an antenna's gain in dBi

C) Determining the line loss of the antenna system

D) Pre-tuning a linear amplifier

9 / 50

I) Which of the following power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile
installation?

A) A direct, fused connection to the alternator or generator using resistor wire

B) A direct, fused connection to the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

C) A direct, fused connection to the battery using heavy gauge wire

D) A direct, fused connection to the battery using resistor wire

10 / 50

J) Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

A) The radiation resistance of an antenna

B) The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter

C) The radiation pattern of an antenna

D) The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

11 / 50

K) What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

A) Photon emission

B) Photon decomposition

C) Photosynthesis

D) Photovoltaic conversion

12 / 50

L) What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in an amateur station?

A) Use a ground loop for best conductivity

B) Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible

C) Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station

D) Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire

13 / 50

M) What unit is used to measure impedance?

A) Ampere

B) Ohm

C) Watt

D) Volt

14 / 50

N) How can a ground loop be avoided?

A) Avoid using lock washers and star washers in making ground connections

B) Series connect all ground conductors

C) Connect all ground conductors to a single point

D) Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

15 / 50

O) Where an S-meter is generally found?

A) In a SWR bridge

B) In a receiver

C) In a transmitter

D) In a conductance bridge

16 / 50

P) Which of the following is a reason to place ferrite beads around audio cables to reduce common mode
RF interference?

A) They lower the impedance of the cable

B) They increase the admittance of the cable

C) They act as a series inductor

D) They act as a shunt capacitor

17 / 50

Q) What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while
transmitting on a HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

A) The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

B) Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

C) Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

D) The ground rod is resonant

18 / 50

R) When might a lead-acid storage battery give off explosive hydrogen gas?

A) When not placed on a level surface

B) When being discharged

C) When stored for long periods of time

D) When being charged

19 / 50

S) What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single sideband phone
transmitter?

A) It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver

B) It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone

C) It reduces average transmitter power requirements

D) It improves voice-frequency fidelity

20 / 50

T) Which of the following should be installed if a properly operating amateur station is interfering with a
nearby telephone?

A) A high pass filter at the affected telephone

B) A high pass filter on the transmitter

C) An RFI filter on the transmitter

D) An RFI filter at the affected telephone

21 / 50

U) What is the effect on a public-address system if there is interference from nearby CW transmitter?

A) A chirpy CW signal

B) A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

C) Severely distorted audio

D) On-and-off humming or clicking

22 / 50

V) What is the main reason to use keyed connectors over non-keyed types?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) Higher current carrying capacity

C) Prevention of use by unauthorized persons

D) Reduced chance of damage due to incorrect mating

23 / 50

W) Which of the following statements about station grounding is true?

A) RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire

B) If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground

C) The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together with high- impedance conductors

D) A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment

24 / 50

X) Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75
meter band?

A) The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

B) Picket Fencing' signal variation

C) The HF mobile antenna system

D) BTRC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band

25 / 50

Y) Which of the following describes a Type-N connector?

A) A moisture resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

B) A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems

C) A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

D) An audio connector used in surround sound installations

26 / 50

Z) What unit is used to measure reactance?

A) Ohm

B) Siemens

C) Farad

D) Ampere

27 / 50

AA) What does an S-meter measure?

A) Transmitter power output

B) Received signal strength

C) Impedance

D) Conductance

28 / 50

AB) Which of the following should be installed if a properly operating amateur station is interfering with a
nearby telephone?

A) An RFI filter at the affected telephone

B) A high pass filter at the affected telephone

C) A high pass filter on the transmitter

D) An RFI filter on the transmitter

29 / 50

AC) Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

A) Excessive background pickup

B) Distorted speech

C) All of these answers are correct

D) Splatter

30 / 50

AD) Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband signal?

A) It reduces harmonic distortion

B) It increases the peak power

C) It reduces inter-modulation distortion

D) It increases the average power

31 / 50

AE) What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the
power source?

A) The electrical load is shorted

B) The source can deliver maximum power to the load

C) No current can flow through the circuit

D) The source delivers minimum power to the load

32 / 50

AF) Which of the following is a disadvantage to using wind power as the primary source of power for an
emergency station?

A) A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

B) The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less that2 percent

C) The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

D) All of these choices are correct

33 / 50

AG) Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?

A) Aluminum nitride

B) Doped Silicon

C) Doped Platinum

D) Nickel Hydride

34 / 50

AH) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

A) Reluctance

B) Admittance

C) Conductance

D) Reactance

35 / 50

AI) What is alternator whine?

A) A mechanical sound from the alternator indicating current overload

B) A DC emission from the alternator

C) A constant pitched tone or buzz in transmitted or received audio that occurs whenever the ignition key is in the on position

D) A tone or buzz in transmitted or received audio that varies with engine speed

36 / 50

AJ) Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an
occupied area?

A) Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning

B) Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion

C) Danger of engine over torque

D) Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion

37 / 50

AK) Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

A) DB-9

B) PL-259

C) Type N

D) Type SMA

38 / 50

AL) What is one way a noise bridge might be used?

A) Determining an antenna's gain in dBi

B) Determining the line loss of the antenna system

C) Pre-tuning an antenna tuner

D) Pre-tuning a linear amplifier

39 / 50

AM) Which of the following emission types are permissible while operating HF mobile?

A) SSB

B) All of these choices are correct

C) CW

D) FM

40 / 50

AN) Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

A) The generator should be insulated from ground

B) All of these choices are correct

C) Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

D) The generator should be located in a well ventilated area

41 / 50

AO) Why would it be unwise to power your station by back feeding the output of a gasoline generator into
your house wiring by connecting the generator through an AC wall outlet?

A) It is prone to RF interference

B) It might present a hazard for electric company workers

C) It may disconnect your RF ground

D) None of the above; this is an excellent expedient

42 / 50

AP) Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?

A) Aluminum nitride

B) Nickel Hydride

C) Doped Silicon

D) Doped Platinum

43 / 50

AQ) Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?

A) Forward-biased diode

B) Bypass inductor

C) Reverse-biased diode

D) Bypass capacitor

44 / 50

AR) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

A) Reactance

B) Admittance

C) Reluctance

D) Conductance

45 / 50

AS) Why is impedance matching important?

A) So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

B) To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit

C) So the load will draw minimum power from the source

D) To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

46 / 50

AT) How does a capacitor react to AC?

A) As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

B) As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

C) As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

D) As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

47 / 50

AU) What sound is heard from a public-address system if there is interference from a nearby single-
sideband phone transmitter?

A) A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

B) Distorted speech

C) Clearly audible speech

D) On-and-off humming or clicking

48 / 50

AV) What is one measurement that can be made with a dip meter?

A) The notch depth of a filter

B) The tilt of the ionosphere

C) The resonant frequency of a circuit

D) The gain of an antenna

49 / 50

AW) What is one cause of broadband radio frequency interference at an amateur radio station?

A) Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

B) Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

C) The use of horizontal, rather than vertical antennas

D) Arcing at a poor electrical connection

50 / 50

AX) Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter?

A) Close-in radio direction-finding

B) A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter

C) A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter

D) An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2018-5

1 / 50

A) What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

A) 0.33 microfarads

B) 0.30 microfarads

C) 300 microfarads

D) 33.3 microfarads

2 / 50

B) What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?

A) The permeability will increase

B) The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies

C) The voltage rating may be exceeded

D) The magnetic field may become inverted

3 / 50

C) What type of component is a thermistor?

A) A resistor that is resistant to changes in value with temperature variations

B) A special type of transistor for use at very cold temperatures

C) A device having a controlled change in resistance with temperature variations

D) A capacitor that changes value with temperature

4 / 50

D) Which of the following is a rechargeable battery?

A) Mercury

B) Silver oxide

C) Nickel Metal Hydride

D) Carbon-zinc

5 / 50

E) Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and
plate?

A) Heater

B) Suppressor grid

C) Screen Grid

D) Control grid

6 / 50

F) Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS Logic integrated circuits compared to TTL logic circuits?

A) High power handling capability

B) Better suited for RF amplification

C) Low power consumption

D) Better suited for power supply regulation

7 / 50

G) Which of the following is the most commonly used digital logic family of integrated circuits?

A) TTL

B) RTL

C) CMOS

D) PMOS

8 / 50

H) What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid
battery?

A) 12 volts

B) 6 volts

C) 10.5 volts

D) 8.5 volts

9 / 50

I) Which measurement of an AC signal is equivalent to a DC voltage of the same value?

A) The peak-to-peak value

B) The RMS value

C) The peak value

D) The reciprocal of the RMS value

10 / 50

J) What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of Nickel Cadmium batteries?

A) High discharge current

B) High voltage

C) Rapid recharge

D) Long life

11 / 50

K) What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel?

A) 300 ohms

B) 33.3 ohms

C) 0.33 ohms

D) 0.30 ohms

12 / 50

L) Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

A) Tight tolerance

B) High capacitance for given volume

C) Inexpensive RF capacitor

D) Non-polarized

13 / 50

M) What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?

A) 5.9 ohms

B) 80 ohms

C) 10000 ohms

D) 0.17 ohms

14 / 50

N) Where the source of energy is normally connected in a transformer?

A) To the plates

B) To the core

C) To the secondary winding

D) To the primary winding

15 / 50

O) What is the main disadvantage of using a conventional wire-wound resistor in a resonant circuit?

A) The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

B) The resistor's inductance could detune the circuit

C) The resistor could overheat

D) The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit

16 / 50

P) What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output
impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance

A) 150 to 1

B) 300 to 1

C) 12.2 to 1

D) 24.4 to 1

17 / 50

Q) What is the correct formula for Ohms law

A) None of the above

B) V=R*I

C) R=V*I

D) I=V*R

18 / 50

R) Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

A) Insert a circulator between the two circuits

B) Reduce the power output of the first circuit

C) Increase the power output of the first circuit

D) Insert an LC network between the two circuits

19 / 50

S) Which of the following Solid state devices are most like a vacuum tube in its general characteristics?

A) A tunnel diode

B) A bipolar transistor

C) A varistor

D) An FET

20 / 50

T) What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

A) Excitation current

B) Magnetizing current

C) Stabilizing current

D) Direct current

21 / 50

U) What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?

A) It eliminates ground-loop current

B) It discharges the filter capacitors

C) It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

D) It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

22 / 50

V) What is the common name for an inductor used to help smooth the DC output from the rectifier in a
conventional power supply?

A) Back EMF choke

B) Repulsion coil

C) Filter choke

D) Charging inductor

23 / 50

W) Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above?

A) Voltage rating may be reduced

B) The polarity of the capacitor might become reversed

C) Effective capacitance may be reduced

D) ESR may be reduced

24 / 50

X) What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transformer secondary that is used to
absorb transient voltage spikes?

A) Feedback capacitor

B) Suppressor capacitor

C) Trimmer capacitor

D) Clipper capacitor

25 / 50

Y) What is the value of each resistor if three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of
resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms?

A) 150 ohms

B) 1500 ohms

C) 175 ohms

D) 90 ohms

26 / 50

Z) What component should be added to a capacitor in a circuit to increase the circuit capacitance?

A) A capacitor in series

B) A resistor in series

C) A capacitor in parallel

D) An inductor in series

27 / 50

AA) Which of the following is most often provided as an analog integrated circuit?

A) NAND Gate

B) Gallium Arsenide UHF Receiver front end Amplifier

C) Frequency Counter

D) Linear voltage regulator

28 / 50

AB) Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A) A transformer

B) All of these choices are correct

C) A Pi-network

D) A length of transmission line

29 / 50

AC) What is meant by the term MMIC?

A) Monolithlic Microwave Integrated Circuit

B) Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit

C) Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

D) Military-specification Manufactured Integrated Circuit

30 / 50

AD) When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to increase current handling capacity, what is the
purpose of the resistor connected in series with each diode?

A) The resistors act as swamping resistors in the circuit

B) The resistors regulate the power supply output voltage

C) The resistors ensure that one diode doesn't carry most of the current

D) The resistors ensure the thermal stability of the power supply

31 / 50

AE) What is meant by the term ROM?

A) Resistant to Overload Memory

B) Random Operational Memory

C) Resistor Operated Memory

D) Read Only Memory

32 / 50

AF) When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

A) As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt

B) When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period

C) When a constant current charger is used

D) Never

33 / 50

AG) What component should be added to an inductor in a circuit to increase the circuit inductance?

A) An inductor in series

B) An inductor in parallel

C) A capacitor in series

D) A resistor in parallel

34 / 50

AH) What type of capacitor is often used in power-supply circuits to filter the rectified AC?

A) Vacuum variable

B) Electrolytic

C) Mica

D) Disc ceramic

35 / 50

AI) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a silicon diode?

A) 1.0 volts

B) 0.1 volt

C) 0.7 volts

D) 0.3 volts

36 / 50

AJ) What two devices in an amateur radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

A) Power supply and amplifier

B) Amplifier and antenna

C) Microphone and transceiver

D) Computer and transceiver

37 / 50

AK) What are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon-diode rectifiers?

A) Peak inverse voltage; average forward current

B) Average power; average voltage

C) Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage

D) Peak load impedance; peak voltage

38 / 50

AL) Which type of integrated circuit is an operational amplifier?

A) Analog

B) Programmable

C) MMIC

D) Digital

39 / 50

AM) How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a parallel circuit?

A) It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

B) It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

C) It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

D) It equals the average of each branch current

40 / 50

AN) Why is it often necessary to insulate the case of a large power transistor?

A) To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground

B) To improve the power dissipation capability

C) To increase the beta of the transistor

D) To reduce stray capacitance

41 / 50

AO) What component should be added to an existing resistor in a circuit to increase circuit resistance?

A) A capacitor in series

B) A resistor in series

C) A capacitor in parallel

D) A resistor in parallel

42 / 50

AP) Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

A) It has a wide viewing angle

B) It requires ambient or back lighting

C) It offers a wide dynamic range

D) All of these choices are correct

43 / 50

AQ) What is a microprocessor?

A) A low powered analog signal processor used as a microwave detector

B) A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage

C) A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a chip

D) A miniature computer on a single integrated circuit chip

44 / 50

AR) What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a carbon resistor is increased?

A) It will become time dependent

B) It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade

C) It will stay the same

D) It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating

45 / 50

AS) How should two solenoid inductors be placed so as to minimize their mutual inductance?

A) In line with their winding axis

B) Within the same shielded enclosure

C) With their winding axes at right angles to each another

D) With their winding axes parallel to each other

46 / 50

AT) What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

A) To decrease plate resistance

B) To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

C) To increase the high frequency response

D) To increase efficiency

47 / 50

AU) Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

A) The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

B) The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

C) The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer

D) The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating later

48 / 50

AV) What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 Pico farad capacitors and one 750 Pico farad capacitor
connected in parallel?

A) 1733 picofarads

B) 3583 picofarads

C) 576.9 picofarads

D) 10750 picofarads

49 / 50

AW) How is an LED biased when emitting light?

A) Forward Biased

B) Reverse Biased

C) Beyond cutoff

D) At the Zener voltage

50 / 50

AX) What is an advantage of using a ferrite core with a toroidal inductor?

A) Large values of inductance may be obtained

B) All of these choices are correct

C) The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

D) Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

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