quiz – UCTC

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Qustion Bank -2025

Question Bank -2023

You have 30 seconds per question.

Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-1

1 / 100

A) Three capacitors of 1mF are connected in parallel. The equivalent capacitance is

A) 33.33 mF

B) 0.3 mF

C) 3.0 mF

D) 0.33 mF

2 / 100

B) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

A) 0.7 volts

B) 0.1volt

C) 1.0 volts

D) 0.3 volts

3 / 100

C) Washing soda is the common name for:

A) Sodium carbonate

B) Sodium bica rbonate

C) Calcium carbonate

D) Calcium bicarbonate

4 / 100

D) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 50 meter band?

A) 5.6 kHz

B) 3 kHz

C) 1.8 kHz

D) 2.8 kHz

5 / 100

E) What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

A) Earth station

B) Beacon station

C) Message forwarding station

D) Repeater station

6 / 100

F) Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

A) Class B

B) Class C

C) Class A

D) Class AB

7 / 100

G) The speed of light is :

A) 300,000,000 mi/s

B) 300,000,000 km/s

C) 300,000,000 mm/s

D) 300,000,000 m/s

8 / 100

H) What brief statement is often transmitted in place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a
repeater?

A) The letters "QSY" followed by your call sign

B) Your call sign

C) The words "Hello test" followed by your call sign

D) The repeater call sign followed by your call sign

9 / 100

I) What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?

A) Wave spread

B) Wave speed

C) Wavelenglh

D) Waveform

10 / 100

J) What are the two common polarization types for antenna?

A) All of the above

B) Vertical& Lateral

C) Horizontal & Vertical

D) H orizontal & Lateral

11 / 100

K) What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit?

A) Transformer

B) Resistor

C) Voltmeter

D) lnductor

12 / 100

L) BTRC is the abbreviation of:

A) Bangladesh Telecom Regulator's Council

B) Bangladesh Telecommunication Regulation Commission

C) Bangladesh Telecommunication and Radio Commission

D) Bangladesh Telecommu nication Regulatory Commission

13 / 100

M) Two 10 kilo ohm resistors are connected in parallel. lf the voltage from a battery across the resistors sets up a current of 5mA in the one resistor, how much current flows in the second?

A) smA

B) 20 mA

C) 10 mA

D) 2mA

14 / 100

N) Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter ?

A) USB

B) DSB

C) LSB

D) CW

15 / 100

O) Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 145.52 MHz?

A) 20 meter band

B) 14 meter band

C) 2 meter band

D) 6 meter band

16 / 100

P) Two 500 pF capacitors in series produce an equivalent capacitance of:

A) 2000 pF

B) 1000 pF

C) 250 pF

D) 1nF

17 / 100

Q) Who must designate the station control operator?

A) The frequency coordinator

B) The station licensee

C) The ITU

D) The FCC

18 / 100

R) What is the functioning role of an antenna in receiving mode?

A) Sensor

B) Radiator

C) Converter

D) lnverter

19 / 100

S) lf 120 volt is measured across a 470 ohm resistor, approximately how much current is flowing through this resistor?

A) 5.64 ampere

B) 3.92 ampere

C) 56.40 ampere

D) 0.25 ampere

20 / 100

T) A method of multiplexing in which the total frequency spectrum available is used by each channel, but only for part of the time :

A) FDM

B) SDM

C) TDM

D) TDM

21 / 100

U) For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is the

A) Tilt angle

B) Attenuation

C) Propagation constant

D) Phase velocity

22 / 100

V) What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

A) Capacitance

B) Voltage

C) Current

D) Resistance

23 / 100

W) ln Re8ion 3, 5 830-5 850MHz band is allotted for Amateu r-satellite for communication

A) None of these

B) Both a & b

C) Earth-to-space

D) Space-to-earth

24 / 100

X) What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur raio installation?

A) 12 ohms

B) 50 ohms

C) 600 ohms

D) 8 ohms

25 / 100

Y) lf you move towards West from the Prime Meridian then the time will

A) Decrease

B) Remain same

C) All of them

D) lncrease

26 / 100

Z) For which of the following modes of a Class C power stage is appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

A) SSB

B) AM

C) All of these choices are correct

D) cw

27 / 100

AA) A L2 volt battery supplies a current of 0.25 ampere to a load. What is the input resistance of this load?

A) 3 ohm

B) 0.02 ohm

C) 480 ohm

D) 48 ohm

28 / 100

AB) How can the current be calculated when the voltage and resistance in a dc circuit is known?

A) l= E/R

B) l=ExR

C) P=lxE

D) l=RxE

29 / 100

AC) A fax transmission is usually at a ----- mode

A) Full-duplex

B) Multiplex

C) Simplex

D) Half-duplex

30 / 100

AD) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on a different channel?

A) Repeater station

B) Space station

C) Telecommand station

D) Relay station

31 / 100

AE) Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?

A) 12 meters

B) None

C) 15 meters

D) 10 meters

32 / 100

AF) A light bulb draws 0.5 A from a L2 V battery when lit. How much power does it consume?

A) 24 W

B) 0.03 W

C) 6 W

D) 3 W

33 / 100

AG) What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?

A) Diode

B) Switch

C) Capacitor

D) lnductor

34 / 100

AH) Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

A) Receiver

B) Antenna and feed line

C) Transmitter

D) All ofthese choices are correct

35 / 100

AI) The filament of an electric bulb is made of :

A) Graphite

B) None of these

C) Nichrome

D) Tungsten

36 / 100

AJ) What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Left-hand circular

B) Vertical

C) Right-ha nd circular

D) Horizontal

37 / 100

AK) What type of device is often used to enable the matching of the transmitter output to an lmpedance other than 50 ohms?

A) Balanced modulator

B) Q Multiplier

C) SWR Bridge

D) Antenna coupler

38 / 100

AL) What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?

A) 300 to 3000 kHz

B) 300 to 3000 MHz

C) 30 to 300 kHz

D) 30 to 300 MHz

39 / 100

AM) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is

A) 45 deg

B) 180 deg

C) 0 deg

D) 90 deg

40 / 100

AN) Which of the following band is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Vestigialsideband

B) U pper sideband

C) Double sideband

D) Lower sideband

41 / 100

AO) What is the approximate length of each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

A) L/4 wavelength

B) 2/3 wavelength

C) 1/2 wavelength

D) L/3 wavelength

42 / 100

AP) Amateur satellites afford an opportunity to use frequencies above _ for long-distance communications

A) LF

B) UVF

C) Ku

D) HF

43 / 100

AQ) What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?

A) Electrostatic

B) Electromagnetic

C) Magnetostrictive

D) Surface acoustic

44 / 100

AR) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit is:

A) 90 deg

B) 45 deg

C) 0 deg

D) 180 deg

45 / 100

AS) Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band?

A) 12.940 MHz

B) 14.100 MHz

C) 24.940 MHz

D) 17.940 M Hz

46 / 100

AT) How many dB change is resulted from a two-times increase or decrease in power?

A) Approximately 5 dB

B) Approximately 3 dB

C) Approximately 12 dB

D) Approximately 2 dB

47 / 100

AU) For Bangladeshi Amateur Radio License Holder, the applicable call sign charges (for once) is BDT:

A) 1000

B) 1500

C) 2500

D) 5000

48 / 100

AV) Resolution of laser printer is specified in terms of:

A) DPI

B) CPM

C) PPM

D) LPM

49 / 100

AW) What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain frequency and blocks electrical energy above that frequency?

A) a high-pass filter

B) a low-pass filter

C) an input filter

D) a band-pass filter

50 / 100

AX) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

A) 1.0 volts

B) 0.3 volts

C) 0.7 volts

D) 0.1volt

51 / 100

AY) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data transmission on 20 meter band?

A) 56 kilobaud

B) 19.6 kilobaud

C) 1200 baud

D) 300 baud

52 / 100

AZ) The approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts

A) is 3 dB

B) is 12 dB

C) is 0 dB

D) is 6 dB

53 / 100

BA) Two resistors are connected in series. The combined resistance is 1200 ohm. lf one of the resistors is 800 ohm, what is the value of the other?

A) 800 ohm

B) 400 ohm

C) 1000 ohm

D) 1200 ohm

54 / 100

BB) Balloons are filled with :

A) Oxygen

B) Nitrogen

C) Argon

D) Helium

55 / 100

BC) The power can be expressed as

A) P=l2R

B) P=Vl

C) Both b & c

D) V=lR

56 / 100

BD) ln radio communication link, what is the shape/nature of waves generated by transmitting antenna?

A) Square

B) Plane

C) Triangular

D) Spherical

57 / 100

BE) The resistance value of an insulator is

A) Less than Unity

B) None

C) Zero

D) Very High

58 / 100

BF) According to 'lnstructions for Amateur Radio Usages and Procedures in Bangladesh' maximum
allowable output power for VHF/UHF Walkie-Talkie set is?

A) 2 Watt

B) 3 Watt

C) 4 watt

D) 5 Watt

59 / 100

BG) What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

A) SK

B) BK

C) AR

D) KN

60 / 100

BH) How can the current (l) be calculated when the voltage (E) and resistance ( R) in a DC circuit is known?

A) l=E/R

B) P= lxE

C) l=ExR

D) l=RxE

61 / 100

BI) Which among the following elucidate the generation of electromagntic waves?

A) Ampere's law

B) Faraday's law

C) Kirchoff's law

D) Gauss's law

62 / 100

BJ) Which of the following is the HF frequency range allotted for Amateur service?

A) 24 890-24 995KHz

B) 24 890-24 990KHz

C) 24 880-24 990KHz

D) 24 800-24 990KHz

63 / 100

BK) Under what type of control do APRS network digipeaters operate?

A) Local

B) Remote

C) Automatic

D) Manual

64 / 100

BL) AccordinB to'lnstructions for Amateur Radio Usages and Procedures in Bangladesh' maximum
allowable output power for VHF/UHF Radio set is

A) 35 Watt

B) 30 Watt

C) 25 Watt

D) 40 Watt

65 / 100

BM) Which of the following is the HF frequency range allotted for Amateur service?

A) 28-28.7MH2

B) 28-28.4MH2

C) 28-29.1MHZ

D) 28 29.4MHz

66 / 100

BN) How can the power (W) be calculated when the voltage (V) and current (l) in a DC circuit is known?

A) W= V/I

B) W=V+l

C) W=Vxl

D) W=l^2xR

67 / 100

BO) What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the lnternet?

A) digipeater

B) repeater

C) beacon

D) gateway

68 / 100

BP) How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

A) About the same

B) 3 dB higher

C) 2.54 dB higher

D) 3 dB lower

69 / 100

BQ) The number to be dialed or called to reach a subscriber in the same local network of numbering area is :

A) Toll access code

B) Local code

C) Subscriber No

D) Area code

70 / 100

BR) What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

A) Frequency modu lation

B) Frequency transformation

C) Frequency convolution

D) Frequency conversion

71 / 100

BS) You are having trouble with reception due to interference from another station. The Q code to be used would be:

A) QRO

B) QRH

C) QRI

D) QRM

72 / 100

BT) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely capacitive circuit is:

A) 0 deg

B) 180 deg

C) 45 deg

D) 90 deg

73 / 100

BU) which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth in order to minimize noise and
interference for CW reception?

A) 1000 Hz

B) 2400 Hz

C) 500 Hz

D) 5000 Hz

74 / 100

BV) What frequency range is referred to as HF?

A) 3 to 30 MHz

B) 300 to 3000 kHz

C) 30 to 300 MHz

D) 300 to 3000 MHz

75 / 100

BW) The frequency limits of the UHF spectrum are

A) 100 to 3000 MHz

B) 300 to 3000 MHz

C) 3 to 300 MHz

D) 30 to 100 MHz

76 / 100

BX) What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

A) 25 and 30 ohms

B) 50 and 75 ohms

C) 80 and 100 ohms

D) 500 and 750 ohms

77 / 100

BY) Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands?

A) U pper sideband

B) Double sideband

C) Vestigial sideband

D) Lower sideband

78 / 100

BZ) What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?

A) Voltage

B) Capacitance

C) Ampere-hours

D) lnductance

79 / 100

CA) What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES )?

A) Licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for commu nications duty in the public service

B) Licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency

C) A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service

D) A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies

80 / 100

CB) Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?

A) The ionosphere

B) The magnetosphere

C) The troposphere

D) The stratosphere

81 / 100

CC) The abbreviation using the Q code for high power is:

A) QRP

B) QRI

C) QRO

D) QRH

82 / 100

CD) Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A) Lower sideband

B) U pper sideband

C) Double sideband

D) Vestigial sideband

83 / 100

CE) The DC current drawn by the final stage of a linear amplifier is 100 mA at 100 V. How much power is consumed?

A) 1 watt

B) 100 watt

C) 1 kilo watt

D) 10 watt

84 / 100

CF) Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current flowing on the shield of a microphone cable?

A) Low-pass filter

B) Band-pass filter

C) Ferrite choke

D) Preamplifier

85 / 100

CG) A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave is called

A) Microphone

B) Loudspeaker

C) Transducer

D) Antenna

86 / 100

CH) What is the approximate length of each side of a quad antenna driven element?

A) 3/4 wavelength

B) 1/2 wavelength

C) 1 wavelength

D) 1/4 wavelength

87 / 100

CI) Which of the following technique uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?

A) Single sideband

B) Frequency modulation

C) Double sideband

D) Phase modulation

88 / 100

CJ) The VHF frequency range that is authorized to Amateurs is

A) 144-146M Hz

B) 140-144MHz

C) 140-146MHz

D) 142-146MHz

89 / 100

CK) As what is the value of an AC waveform, representing the equivalent heating effect to a DC voltage, known as?

A) Peak value

B) Average value

C) Corrected value

D) RMS value

90 / 100

CL) The Phonetic used to represent alphabet L is

A) lIMA

B) LEEMAH

C) LEEMA

D) LEMA

91 / 100

CM) What is the frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 300 mm in vacuam

A) 1 GHz

B) 1 MHz

C) 100 kHz

D) 100 MHz

92 / 100

CN) The relation between B and a is

A) B = (1-a) /a

B) B= a/ (1 -a)

C) B = 1/(1-a )

D) B = a/(1 +a)

93 / 100

CO) Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?

A) Rubber

B) Wood

C) Copper

D) Glass

94 / 100

CP) Which band is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?

A) Upper sideband

B) Dou ble sideband

C) Lower sideband

D) Vestigial sideband

95 / 100

CQ) Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation ?

A) lnsufficient audio

B) lnsufficient bandwidth

C) Frequency drift

D) Excessive bandwidth

96 / 100

CR) What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a so-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance?

A) 2:1

B) 0:0

C) 50:50

D) 1:1

97 / 100

CS) ln a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?

A) Resistance

B) Reactance

C) Reluctance

D) Admittance

98 / 100

CT) Radar altimeter is used for measurement of :

A) Height

B) Range

C) Bearing

D) Speed

99 / 100

CU) Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

A) Rubber

B) Wood

C) Glass

D) Copper

100 / 100

CV) Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

A) Volts

B) Ohms

C) Amperes

D) Watts

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Ham Exam

You have 30 seconds per question.

Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-2

1 / 100

A) What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

A) 1/2 wavelength

B) L/4 wavelength

C) 3/4 wavelength

D) 1 wavelength

2 / 100

B) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the Eregion?

A) 12,000 miles

B) 180 miles

C) 1,200 miles

D) 2,500 miles

3 / 100

C) When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your location?

A) At noon durinB the winter

B) At dusk in the spring and fall

C) At midnight during the summer

D) At noon during the summer

4 / 100

D) Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?

A) Doped Platinum

B) Aluminum nitride

C) Doped Silicon

D) Nickel Hydride

5 / 100

E) Which of the following is an advantage of a Class C amplifier?

A) No need for tuned circuits

B) Linear operation

C) All of these answers are correct

D) High efficiency

6 / 100

F) Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

A) Suppressor grid

B) Heater

C) Screen grid

D) control grid

7 / 100

G) One of the following is not a conductor:

A) Aluminum

B) Mica

C) Copper

D) Silver

8 / 100

H) How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

A) lt reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz

B) lt decreases

C) lt is independent of frequency

D) lt increases

9 / 100

I) What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twin lead?

A) 50 ohms

B) 75 ohms

C) 100 ohms

D) 300 ohms

10 / 100

J) What are the two types of transistor we use in general?

A) NPP and NPN

B) NPN and PNP

C) PNP and PMP

D) NPP and PNP

11 / 100

K) The frequency of 21.250 is in the radio amateur:

A) 21 meter band

B) 15 meter band

C) 40 meter band

D) 30 meter band

12 / 100

L) Which is the correct Q Code for "shall I stop sending?"

A) QRL

B) QTH

C) QRK

D) QRV

13 / 100

M) Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

A) 30 amperes

B) 60 amperes

C) 100 amperes

D) 15 amperes

14 / 100

N) What is the output of a NOR gate given that both inputs are "zero"?

A) The opposite from the previous state

B) Minus one

C) One

D) Zero

15 / 100

O) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 8Om amateur band?

A) 3500-350O kHz

B) 3000-3800 kHz

C) 3400-3700 kHz

D) 3500-380O kHz

16 / 100

P) What component should be added to a capacitor in a circuit to increase the circuit capacitance?

A) A capacitor in parallel

B) A resistor in series

C) A capacitor in series

D) An inductor in series

17 / 100

Q) What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

A) To minimize SWR in the transmission line

B) To minimize SWR at the antenna

C) To reduce power dissipation in the transmitter

D) To maximize the transfer of power

18 / 100

R) One of the following is not an insulator

A) Mica

B) Copper

C) Plastic

D) Ceramic

19 / 100

S) What does MUF stand for?

A) The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

B) The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

C) The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

D) The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

20 / 100

T) What is the value of each resistor if three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of
resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms?

A) 150 ohms

B) 1500 ohms

C) 175 ohms

D) 90 ohms

21 / 100

U) Which of the following is a characteristic of a class A amplifier?

A) Low standby power

B) High efficiency

C) Low distortion

D) No need for bias

22 / 100

V) What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A) An ohmmeter

B) An ammeter

C) An oscilloscope

D) A signalgenerator

23 / 100

W) which of the following is the most commonly used digital logic family of integrated circuits?

A) PMOS

B) RTL

C) TTL

D) CMOS

24 / 100

X) What are the upper and lower frequencies in the 2Om amateur band?

A) 14000-14350 kHz

B) 14350-14250 kHz

C) 14300-14000 kHz

D) 14450-14150 kHz

25 / 100

Y) What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

A) 24.6 feet

B) 32.8 feet

C) 8.2 feet

D) 16.4 feet

26 / 100

Z) identify the correct Q code for "your signals are fading"

A) QSL

B) QRO

C) QSB

D) QRN

27 / 100

AA) What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna ?

A) Wind load decreases

B) sWR increases

C) Weight decreases

D) Gain increases

28 / 100

AB) Which of the following is the best instrument to use to check the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A) A monitoring oscilloscope

B) A wavemeter

C) A field-strength meter

D) A sidetone monitor

29 / 100

AC) A potentiometer is a

A) Variable resistor

B) Battery

C) Meter

D) Capacitor

30 / 100

AD) The correct Q Code for "change frequency to" is

A) QSX

B) QTH

C) QSR

D) QSY

31 / 100

AE) What unit is used to measure reactance?

A) Ampere

B) Siemens

C) ohm

D) Farad

32 / 100

AF) What we can do by a Spectrum Analyzer?

A) We can measure a single frequency

B) We can locate a hidden transmltter

C) We can measure multiple frequency at the same time

D) We can measure the RF power

33 / 100

AG) What is the total resistance of three 100-0hm resistors in parallel?

A) 300 ohms

B) 0.33 ohms

C) 0.30 ohms

D) 33.3 ohms

34 / 100

AH) Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

A) RJ-11

B) PL-2s9

C) DB-2s

D) octal

35 / 100

AI) Why we use a linear RF amplifier?

A) To increase the out put RF power ofthe antenna

B) To fine tune the out put RF power of the transmitter

C) To decrease the out put RF power of the transmitter

D) To increase the out put RF power of the transmitter

36 / 100

AJ) Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

A) The E layer

B) The F2 layer

C) The F1 layer

D) The D layer

37 / 100

AK) Which of the following techniques is used to neutralize an RF amplifier?

A) Positive feedback

B) Feed-forward compensation

C) Negative feedback

D) Feed-forwa rd cancellation

38 / 100

AL) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the lowest usable frequency {LUF)?

A) They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

B) They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

C) They pass through the ionosphere

D) They are bent back to the Earth

39 / 100

AM) What is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial cables used for antenna feedlines at amateur stations?

A) 500 and 750 ohms

B) 80 and 100 ohms

C) 25 and 30 ohms

D) 50 and 75 ohms

40 / 100

AN) Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna driven element?

A) 1/4 wavelength

B) 2/3 wavelength

C) 3/4 wavelength

D) 1/2 wavelenBlh

41 / 100

AO) What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

A) Magnetizing current

B) Direct current

C) Stabilizing current

D) Excitation current

42 / 100

AP) Which measurement of an AC signal is equivalent to a DC voltage of the same value?

A) The RMS value

B) The peak-to-pea k value

C) The peak value

D) The reciprocal of the RMS value

43 / 100

AQ) QRP means

A) Address is

B) High Power

C) Close down

D) Low Power

44 / 100

AR) Which type of integrated circuit is an operational amplifier?

A) Analog

B) MMIC

C) Digital

D) Programmable

45 / 100

AS) The resistance value of 1200 ohms can be expressed as:

A) 0.12 Mega ohms

B) 1.2 kilo ohms

C) L2 kilo ohms

D) 1.2 Mega ohms

46 / 100

AT) Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) A length of transmission line

C) A transformer

D) A Pi-network

47 / 100

AU) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 4Om amateur band?

A) 14000-14350 kHz

B) 7000-7100 kHz

C) 7000-7350 kHz

D) 7000-7150 kHz

48 / 100

AV) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 2m amateur band?

A) 145000-145995 kHz

B) 144000-146000 kHz

C) 144000-145000 kHz

D) 142000-146000 kHz

49 / 100

AW) Amateur radio stations do not have to keep a log book:

A) For 144 MHz or 430 MHz transmissions

B) For 80m transmissions

C) For 10m transmissions

D) For 20m transmissions

50 / 100

AX) What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

A) Photosynthesis

B) Photon decom position

C) Photon emission

D) Photovoltaic conversion

51 / 100

AY) Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

A) Type SMA

B) Type N

C) DB-9

D) PL-259

52 / 100

AZ) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

A) Conductance

B) Reluctance

C) Admittance

D) Reactance

53 / 100

BA) The Q code for "standby" is:

A) QRX

B) QRN

C) QRM

D) QRS

54 / 100

BB) What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?

A) Amplitude modulation

B) Multiplex modulation

C) Pulse modulation

D) Phase modulation

55 / 100

BC) Which is the correct Q Code for "when will you call me again?"

A) QSB

B) QSD

C) QRX

D) QRH

56 / 100

BD) How many states are there in a 3-bit binary counter?

A) 6

B) 3

C) 16

D) 8

57 / 100

BE) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

A) Conductance

B) Reactance

C) Admittance

D) Reluctance

58 / 100

BF) What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a transmitted signal?

A) The local oscillator of the transmitter

B) The transmitter balanced mixer output

C) The audio input of the transmitter

D) The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

59 / 100

BG) What unit is used to measure impedance?

A) Volt

B) Ampere

C) Watt

D) ohm

60 / 100

BH) QRT means:

A) Stand By

B) Low Power

C) Fading

D) Close down

61 / 100

BI) What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

A) Synthesizing

B) Heterodyning

C) Multiplying

D) Cancellation

62 / 100

BJ) What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far foi grorind
wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?

A) Scatter

B) Ground wave

C) Sporadic-E skip

D) Short-path skip

63 / 100

BK) Where an S-meter is generally found?

A) ln a conductance bridge

B) ln a receiver

C) ln a SWR bridge

D) ln a transmitter

64 / 100

BL) Which the correct Q Code is for "are my signals fading?"

A) QSD

B) QRH

C) QRN

D) QSB

65 / 100

BM) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

A) 270 degrees

B) 90 degrees

C) 360 degrees

D) 180 degrees

66 / 100

BN) what is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

A) Frequency modulation

B) Frequency transformation

C) Frequency convolution

D) Frequency conversion

67 / 100

BO) Which the correct Q-code is for "Are you ready?"

A) QRV

B) QRG

C) QRL

D) QRK

68 / 100

BP) ln what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?

A) ohms per 100 ft

B) dB per 100 ft

C) ohms per 1000 ft

D) dB per 1000 ft

69 / 100

BQ) What component should be added to an inductor in a circuit to increase the circuit inductance?

A) An inductor in series

B) An inductor in parallel

C) A resistor in parallel

D) A capacitor in series

70 / 100

BR) What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-0hm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance

A) 300 to 1

B) 150 to 1

C) 24.4 to 1

D) 12.2 to 1

71 / 100

BS) identify the correct Q code for "are you being interfered with?"

A) QSL

B) QRN

C) QRX

D) QRM

72 / 100

BT) What does LUF stand for?

A) The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

B) The Longest Universal Function for communicat;ons between two points

C) The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

D) The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

73 / 100

BU) What does an S-meter measure?

A) Received signal strength

B) Transmitter power output

C) lmpedance

D) Conductance

74 / 100

BV) identify the correct Q code for "Send slower"

A) QRS

B) QRQ

C) QRO

D) QSP

75 / 100

BW) The opposition to the flow of current in a circuit is called:

A) Resistance

B) Capacitance

C) lnductance

D) Emission

76 / 100

BX) what is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a silicon diode?

A) 0.1volt

B) 0.3 volts

C) 1.0 volts

D) 0.7 volts

77 / 100

BY) What is the output of a two-input NAND gate, Given both inputs are "one"?

A) Minus One

B) One

C) Two

D) Zero

78 / 100

BZ) The current through a 100 ohm resistor is to 120ma. What is the potential difference across the resistor?

A) 83,33 volt

B) 8,33 volt

C) 120 volt

D) 12 volt

79 / 100

CA) Will you tell me my exact frequency may be transmitted as:

A) QRI

B) QRG

C) QSL

D) QRU

80 / 100

CB) Which of the followin8 emission types are permissible while operating HF mobile?

A) CW

B) All of these choices are correct

C) FM

D) SSB

81 / 100

CC) A station that is intended to be operated while it is in motion or while it is stationary at an unspecified place is called

A) An amateur radio station

B) A removable radio station

C) A portable station

D) A mobile station

82 / 100

CD) Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?

A) The F2 layer

B) The D layer

C) The E layer

D) The F1 layer

83 / 100

CE) What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?

A) 0.17 ohms

B) 10000 ohms

C) 80 ohms

D) 5.9 ohms

84 / 100

CF) What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

A) 131.8 feet

B) 42.2 feet

C) 263.6 feet

D) 84.5 feet

85 / 100

CG) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 re8ion?

A) 12,000 miles

B) 2,500 miles

C) 180 miles

D) 1,200 miles

86 / 100

CH) What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

A) 8.2 feet

B) 16.4 feet

C) 10.5 feet

D) 21.0 feet

87 / 100

CI) What are the propagation path or wave for HF radio contact?

A) Both ground wave and sky wave propagation

B) None of the above

C) Only sky wave propagation

D) Only ground wave propagation

88 / 100

CJ) what is the correct Q Code for "what is your location?"

A) QRP

B) QSP

C) QSY

D) QTH

89 / 100

CK) What are the lower and upper frequencies of the 15m amateur band?

A) 21.100-21,.350 MHz

B) 21.000-21.450 MHz

C) 21.350-21.450 MHz

D) 21.000-21.350 MHz

90 / 100

CL) The term "5 and 9" used to describe a signal, is in which code?

A) Q code

B) Color code

C) RST code

D) Morse code

91 / 100

CM) Which of the following Solid state devices are most like a vacuum tube in its general characteristics?

A) A tunnel diode

B) A varistor

C) A bipolar transistor

D) An FET

92 / 100

CN) Repeaters only normally operate on which mode:

A) FM

B) AM

C) SSB

D) CW

93 / 100

CO) How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the "S" meter reading on a
distant receiver from 58 to 59?

A) Approximately 5 times

B) Approximately 2 times

C) Approximately 4 times

D) Approximately 3 times

94 / 100

CP) Which of the following might be used to process si8nals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?

A) Carrier oscillator

B) lF amplifier

C) Filter

D) RF amplifier

95 / 100

CQ) Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?

A) Bypass inductor

B) Reverse-biased diode

C) Forward-biased diode

D) Bypass capacitor

96 / 100

CR) What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

A) 300 microfarads

B) 0.30 microfarads

C) 33.3 microfa rads

D) 0.33 m icrofarads

97 / 100

CS) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

A) 1.80 degrees

B) 270 deBrees

C) 360 degrees

D) 90 degrees

98 / 100

CT) Which is the correct Q Code for "can you acknowledge receipt?"

A) QRV

B) QSL

C) QRK

D) QRL

99 / 100

CU) What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

A) 12 volts

B) 10.5 volts

C) 6 volts

D) 8.5 volts

100 / 100

CV) What is the correct formula for Ohms law

A) R=V*l

B) V=R*l

C) None of the above

D) l=V*R

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Ham Exam

You have 30 seconds per question.

Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-3

1 / 71

A) What does the term zero beat mean in CW operation?

A) Matching the speed of the transmitting station

B) Sending without error

C) Operating split to avoid lnterference on frequency

D) M atch ing the frequency of the transmitting station

2 / 71

B) Which of the following describes Baudot RTTY?

A) Two ma.lor operating modes are SELCAL and LISTEN

B) 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits

C) Utilizes error detection and correction

D) 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits

3 / 71

C) Which of the following 20 meter band segments is most often used for most data transmissions?

A) 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

B) 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

C) 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

D) 14.000 - 14.050 MHz

4 / 71

D) what is the standard bandwidth for narrow band FM transmission in VHF and UHF

A) 12.5 KHz

B) 20 kHz

C) 25 KHz

D) s0 kHz

5 / 71

E) what is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a
station?

A) Mercator projection

B) Polar projection

C) Azimuthal projection

D) Stereographic projection

6 / 71

F) What is measured by the solar flux index?

A) A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

B) The radio energy emitted by the sun

C) The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth

D) The density of the sun's magnetic field

7 / 71

G) What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicates?

A) A general callfor any station

B) The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

C) The caller is listeninB for a station in Germany

D) This is a form of distress call

8 / 71

H) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful I contact if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) between the two stations is 22 MHz?

A) L5 meters

B) 20 meters

C) 40 meters

D) 10 meters

9 / 71

I) Which sideband is most commonly used for phone communications on the bands above 20 meters?

A) Double Sideba nd

B) Upper Sideband

C) Vestigial Sideband

D) Lower Sideband

10 / 71

J) How many data bits are sent in a single PSK3l character?

A) 7

B) 8

C) 5

D) The number varies

11 / 71

K) Which of the following statement is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode?

A) lt is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed

B) lt reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies

C) lt is a form offrequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized

D) lt is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz 50.

12 / 71

L) Whlch of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated with VOX circuitry?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) VOX Delay

C) Anti-VOX

D) VOX Sensitivity

13 / 71

M) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (eSK)?

A) an operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmissioon

B) Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

C) lncoming signals are received between transmitted code character elements

D) Automatic keyers are used to send morse code instead of hand keys

14 / 71

N) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on another
channel?

A) Beacon Station

B) Repeater Station

C) Telecommmand Station

D) Relay Station

15 / 71

O) How long does it take charged particles from Coronal Mass Ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?

A) 28 days

B) 20 to 40 hours

C) The effect is instantaneous

D) 14 days

16 / 71

P) Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A) An omnidirectional antenna

B) A bi-directional antenna

C) An isotropic antenna

D) A unidirectional antenna

17 / 71

Q) When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

A) When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

B) At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

C) When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

D) When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

18 / 71

R) What should you do if a CW station sends "eRS" when usinB Morse code?

A) Repeat everything twice.

B) Send slower

C) Change frequency

D) lncrease your power

19 / 71

S) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?

A) Operating fu ll break-in

B) Listening only for a specific station or stations

C) Closing station

D) Keep frequency clear

20 / 71

T) Where PSK signals are generally found on the 20 meter band?

A) Around 14.070 MHz

B) ln the low end of the phone band

C) ln the weak signal portion of the band

D) ln the high end of the phone band

21 / 71

U) What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

A) 1000 watts PEP output

B) 2000 watts PEP output

C) 1500 watts PEP output

D) 200 watts PEP output

22 / 71

V) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions transmitted on frequency bands below 28 MHz?

A) 19.6 kilobaud

B) 1200 baud

C) 56 kilobaud

D) 300 baud

23 / 71

W) What lan8uage must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than
English in making a contact?

A) Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country

B) The language being used for the contact

C) Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU

D) English

24 / 71

X) Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the Amateur Rules?

A) Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

B) Observation of propagation and reception, or other related activities

C) ldentifying net frequencies

D) Automatic ldentification of Repeaters

25 / 71

Y) What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?

A) Try a different antenna polarization

B) Try a higher frequency

C) Try a different frequency shift

D) Try the other sideband

26 / 71

Z) What minimum frequency separation between SSB signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) Approximately 6 kHz

B) Between 150 and 500 Hz

C) Approximately 3 kHz

D) Approximately 10 kHz

27 / 71

AA) What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A) 85 Hz

B) 425 Hz

C) 8s0 Hz

D) 170 Hz

28 / 71

AB) Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compa red to other voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

A) Less bandwidth used and high power efficiency

B) Very high fidelity voice modulation

C) Ease of tuning on receive

D) Less sub.iect to static crashes (atmospherics)

29 / 71

AC) With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A) ldentification must be in Morse Code

B) The frequency must be posted on the lnternet or published in a national periodical

C) There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location

D) The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

30 / 71

AD) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Double Sideband

B) Lower Sideband

C) U pper Sideba nd

D) Vestigial Sideband

31 / 71

AE) What should you do if you notice increasing interference from other activity on a frequency you are using?

A) Move your contact to another frequenc"y

B) Tell the interfering stations to change frequency since you were there first

C) Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

D) Turn on your amplifier

32 / 71

AF) What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message?

A) KN

B) BK

C) AR

D) SK

33 / 71

AG) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) between the two stations s 16 MHz?

A) 20 meters

B) 2 meters

C) 40 meters

D) 80 meters

34 / 71

AH) How radio communications are usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

A) HF communications are disturbed

B) HF communications are improved

C) VHF/UHF ducting is improved

D) VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

35 / 71

AI) What is a band plan?

A) A voluntary guideline for band use beyond the divisions established by the BTRC

B) A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

C) A guideline from the ITU for making amateur frequency band allocations

D) A guideline from the BTRC for making amateur frequency band allocations

36 / 71

AJ) What does the abbreviation "MFsK" stand for?

A) Manual Frequency 5hift Keying

B) Manual Frequency Sideband Keying

C) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

D) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying

37 / 71

AK) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

B) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

C) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

D) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

38 / 71

AL) What is QRP operation?

A) Traffic Relay Procedure net operation

B) Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

C) Remote Piloted Model control

D) Low power transmit operation, typically about 5 watts

39 / 71

AM) Which mode should be selected when using a SSB transmitter with an Audio Frequency Shift Keying (AFSK) RTTY signal?

A) DSB

B) USB

C) cw

D) LSB

40 / 71

AN) How long is the typicalsunspot cycle?

A) Between 20 and 40 hours

B) Approximately 28 days

C) Approximately 8 minutes

D) Approximately 11 years

41 / 71

AO) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

A) Listening only for a specific station or stations

B) Operating full break-in

C) Closing station now

D) Listening for novice stations

42 / 71

AP) Which frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar
activity?

A) Frequencies above 20 MHz

B) Frequencies below 3.5 MHz

C) Frequencies near 3.5 MHz

D) Frequencies at or above 10 MHz

43 / 71

AQ) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2 meter bands?

A) 19.6 kilobaud

B) 56 kilobaud

C) 1200 baud

D) 300 baud

44 / 71

AR) What is the K-index?

A) A measure ofthe stability ofthe sun's magnetic field

B) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the su rface of the sun

C) A measure of the short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field

D) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

45 / 71

AS) Which of the following operating restrictions applies to amateur radio stations as a secondary service in the 60 meter band?

A) They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize harmful interference to other radio services

B) They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier only

C) They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other radio services

D) They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth

46 / 71

AT) What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?

A) Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response

B) Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations

C) Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

D) Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign

47 / 71

AU) What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling informatlon?

A) Header

B) Preamble

C) Directory

D) Footer

48 / 71

AV) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?

A) 1200 baud

B) 19.6 kilobaud

C) 300 baud

D) 56 kilobaud

49 / 71

AW) Which emission mode must be used to obtain assistance during a disaster?

A) Only SSB and CW

B) Any mode

C) Only CW

D) Only SSB

50 / 71

AX) What does the Q signal "QRV" mean when operating CW?

A) There is interference on the frequency

B) You are sending too fast

C) I am quitting for the day

D) I am ready to receive messages

51 / 71

AY) What does the Q signal "Q51" mean when operating CW?

A) We have already confirmed by card

B) Send slower

C) I acknowledge receipt

D) We have worked before

52 / 71

AZ) What minimum frequency separation between CW signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) 3 to 6 kHz

B) 5 to 50 Hz

C) 1to 3 kHz

D) 150 to 500 Hz

53 / 71

BA) What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A) 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day

B) Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

C) Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicatinB the distress message

D) Only frequencies that are within your operating privile8es

54 / 71

BB) When may the BTRC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations?

A) When they declare a temporary state of communication emer8ency

B) When the country goes under a WAR

C) When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

D) Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmittinB

55 / 71

BC) Which sideband is commonly used on the 150,75, and 40 meter bands?

A) Double Sideband

B) U pper Sideba nd

C) Vestigial Sideband

D) Lower Sideband

56 / 71

BD) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

B) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

C) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

D) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

57 / 71

BE) lf the H F radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good on the 24-M H z and ].B-MH:- bands for several days, when might you expect a similar condition to occur?

A) 7 days later

B) 14 days later

C) 28 days later

D) 90 days later

58 / 71

BF) Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid
harmful interference to other users

A) When operating within one mile of an BTRC Monitoring Station

B) All ofthese answers are correct

C) When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

D) When using a band where the amateur service is secondary

59 / 71

BG) What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?

A) lt is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes

B) lt offers good performance in weak signal environment without error correction

C) lt is much higher speed than RTTY

D) lt has built-in error correction

60 / 71

BH) What is the best speed to use answerinB a CQ in Morse Code?

A) The speed at which you are most comfortable copying

B) 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

C) A slow speed until contact is established

D) The speed at which the CQ was sent

61 / 71

BI) How does BTRC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not covered by the rules?

A) ln conformance with amateur radio custom

B) All of these answers are correct

C) ln conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

D) ln conformance with the rules of the IARU

62 / 71

BJ) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Lower Sideband

B) U pper Sideba nd

C) Vestigial Sideband

D) Double Sideband

63 / 71

BK) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A) At the summer solstice

B) At any point in the solar cycle

C) Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

D) Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

64 / 71

BL) Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in assisting emergency relief
operations during a disaster?

A) Only official emergency stations may transmit during a disaster

B) Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

C) Only a RACES net control operator

D) only a person holding an BTRC issued amateur operator license

65 / 71

BM) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

B) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

C) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

D) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

66 / 71

BN) When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

A) Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the BTRC

B) Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

C) To control a space station

D) During a declared communications emerBency

67 / 71

BO) Which of the followinB statement is true of VOX operation?

A) Frequency spectrum is conserved

B) The received signal is more natural sounding

C) VOX allows "hands free" operation

D) The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced

68 / 71

BP) What minimum frequency separation between 170 Hz shift RTTY signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) 250 to 500 Hz

B) 170 Hz

C) Approximately 3 kHz

D) 60 Hz

69 / 71

BQ) What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean when operating CW?

A) Zero beat my signal

B) Qu itting operation

C) Slow down

D) Send faster

70 / 71

BR) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by BTRC rules for amateur radio stations when operating on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

A) 2.8 kHz

B) 3 kHz

C) +/-2.8 kHz

D) 5.6 kHz

71 / 71

BS) Which of the following is prohibited by the BTRC Rules for amateur radio stations?

A) Transmission of false or deceptive messages or signals

B) Transmission of music as the primary program material during a contact

C) The use of obscene or indecent words

D) All of these answers are correct

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Qustion Bank -2018

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Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2018-1

1 / 49

A) What minimum frequency separation between SSB signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) Between 150 and 500 Hz

B) Approximately 3 kHz

C) Approximately 10 kHz

D) Approximately 6 kHz

2 / 49

B) Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other voice modes
on the HF amateur bands?

A) Ease of tuning on receive

B) Very high fidelity voice modulation

C) Less bandwidth used and high power efficiency

D) Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics)

3 / 49

C) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter
band?

A) 19.6 kilobaud

B) 300 baud

C) 1200 baud

D) 56 kilobaud

4 / 49

D) With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A) The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

B) The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical

C) Identification must be in Morse Code

D) There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location

5 / 49

E) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Vestigial Sideband

B) Double Sideband

C) Lower Sideband

D) Upper Sideband

6 / 49

F) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions transmitted on frequency bands below
28 MHz?

A) 300 baud

B) 19.6 kilobaud

C) 56 kilobaud

D) 1200 baud

7 / 49

G) Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an
uncoordinated repeater?

A) The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

B) The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

C) Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference

D) The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

8 / 49

H) What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?

A) Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign

B) Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response

C) Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

D) Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations

9 / 49

I) What minimum frequency separation between CW signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) 5 to 50 Hz

B) 1 to 3 kHz

C) 150 to 500 Hz

D) 3 to 6 kHz

10 / 49

J) What is the standard repeater shifting in UHF band?

A) 600 KHz

B) 1 MHz

C) 90 KHz

D) 5 MHz

11 / 49

K) What is a band plan?

A) A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

B) A guideline from the ITU for making amateur frequency band allocations

C) A voluntary guideline for band use beyond the divisions established by the BTRC

D) A guideline from the BTRC for making amateur frequency band allocations

12 / 49

L) Which sideband is most commonly used for phone communications on the bands above 20 meters?

A) Vestigial Sideband

B) Double Sideband

C) Lower Sideband

D) Upper Sideband

13 / 49

M) What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when calling CQ using Morse code or CW?

A) Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference with contacts already in progress

B) Send "QRL? de" followed by your callsign and listen for a response

C) Send the letter "V" 12 times and then listen for a response

D) Call CQ at low power first; if there is no indication of interference then increase power as necessary

14 / 49

N) What is the standard repeater shifting in VHF band?

A) 900 KHz

B) 1 MHz

C) 600 KHz

D) 5 MHz

15 / 49

O) Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in assisting emergency relief
operations during a disaster?

A) Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

B) Only a RACES net control operator

C) Only official emergency stations may transmit during a disaster

D) Only a person holding an BTRC issued amateur operator license

16 / 49

P) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2
meter bands?

A) 1200 baud

B) 56 kilobaud

C) 300 baud

D) 19.6 kilobaud

17 / 49

Q) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on another
channel?

A) Repeater Station

B) Beacon Station

C) Relay Station

D) Telecommmand Station

18 / 49

R) What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicates?

A) The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

B) This is a form of distress call

C) The caller is listening for a station in Germany

D) A general call for any station

19 / 49

S) What action should be taken if the frequency on which a net normally meets is in use just before the
net begins?

A) Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you

B) Reduce your output power and start the net as usual

C) Ask the stations if the net may use the frequency, or move the net to a nearby clear frequency if necessary

D) Cancel the net for that day

20 / 49

T) What minimum frequency separation between 170 Hz shift RTTY signals should be allowed to minimize
interference?

A) Approximately 3 kHz

B) 250 to 500 Hz

C) 60 Hz

D) 170 Hz

21 / 49

U) What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ using
phone?

A) Call CQ at low power first and if there is no indication of interference, increase power as necessary

B) Ask if the frequency is in use, say your callsign, and listen for a response

C) Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ to avoid interference to contacts that maybe in progress

D) Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress

22 / 49

V) What should you do if you notice increasing interference from other activity on a frequency you are
using?

A) Move your contact to another frequency

B) Tell the interfering stations to change frequency since you were there first

C) Turn on your amplifier

D) Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

23 / 49

W) What limitations, other than the 1500 watt PEP limit, are placed on transmitter power in the 14 MHz
band?

A) Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

B) Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

C) Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts

D) Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

24 / 49

X) What language must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than
English in making a contact?

A) Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country

B) English

C) Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU

D) The language being used for the contact

25 / 49

Y) Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an
amateur station?

A) The third party is not a Bangladeshi citizen

B) The third party is a person previously licensed in the amateur service whose license had been revoked

C) The third party is speaking in a language other than English, French, or Spanish

D) The third party is a licensed amateur

26 / 49

Z) What should be done if a net is about to begin on a frequency you and another station are using?

A) Pause between transmissions to give the net a chance to change frequency

B) Move to a different frequency as a courtesy to the net

C) Tell the net that they must to move to another frequency

D) Reduce power to avoid interfering with the net

27 / 49

AA) Which of the following operating restrictions applies to amateur radio stations as a secondary service in
the 60 meter band?

A) They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier, only

B) They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize harmful interference to other radio services

C) They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth

D) They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other radio services

28 / 49

AB) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by BTRC rules for amateur radio stations when operating
on USB frequencies in the 60--meter band?

A) 3 kHz

B) 5.6 kHz

C) +/-2.8 kHz

D) 2.8 kHz

29 / 49

AC) How does the BTRC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not covered by the rules?

A) In conformance with amateur radio custom

B) In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

C) In conformance with the rules of the IARU

D) All of these answers are correct

30 / 49

AD) Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode?

A) It reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies

B) It is a form of frequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized

C) It is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz 50.

D) It is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed

31 / 49

AE) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?

A) 19.6 kilobaud

B) 56 kilobaud

C) 1200 baud

D) 300 baud

32 / 49

AF) What is the standard bandwidth for narrow band FM transmission in VHF and UHF

A) 20 kHz

B) 50 kHz

C) 12.5 KHz

D) 25 KHz

33 / 49

AG) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for Slow- Scan
TV (SSTV) operation?

A) Select a frequency in the portion of the band set aside for digital operation

B) Transmit only on lower sideband

C) Follow generally accepted band plans for SSTV operation

D) Transmit your callsign as an SSTV image for 1 minute to ensure a clear frequency

34 / 49

AH) When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

A) At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

B) When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

C) When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

D) When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

35 / 49

AI) Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation?

A) Frequency spectrum is conserved

B) The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced

C) The received signal is more natural sounding

D) VOX allows "hands free" operation

36 / 49

AJ) Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid
harmful interference to other users

A) When operating within one mile of an BTRC Monitoring Station

B) When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

C) All of these answers are correct

D) When using a band where the amateur service is secondary

37 / 49

AK) Which of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated with VOX circuitry?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) Anti-VOX

C) VOX Sensitivity

D) VOX Delay

38 / 49

AL) Which of the following is prohibited by the BTRC Rules for amateur radio stations?

A) All of these answers are correct

B) Transmission of music as the primary program material during a contact

C) Transmission of false or deceptive messages or signals

D) The use of obscene or indecent words

39 / 49

AM) Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the Amateur Rules?

A) Automatic Identification of Repeaters

B) Identifying Net Frequencies

C) Observation of propagation and reception, or other related activities

D) Transmission of bulletins of General interest to amateur radio licensees

40 / 49

AN) What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz for Intermediate
class?

A) 1000 watts PEP output

B) 2000 watts PEP output

C) 100 watts PEP output

D) 1500 watts PEP output

41 / 49

AO) What must you do if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary
service interferes with your contact?

A) Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference

B) Stop transmitting at once and/or move to a clear frequency

C) Notify the BTRC's spectrum management department of the interference

D) Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference

42 / 49

AP) Which of the following is a permissible third party communication during routine amateur radio
operations?

A) Sending a business message for another person, as long it is for a non-profit organization

B) Permitting an unlicensed person to speak to a licensed amateur anywhere in the world

C) Sending a business message for another person, as long as the control operator has no pecuniary interest in the message

D) Sending a message to a third party through a foreign station, as long as that person is a licensed amateur radio operator

43 / 49

AQ) When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Intermediate Class
control operator?

A) Under no circumstances

B) Only if the 10 meter control operator holds at least a General class license

C) Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

D) Only during an BTRC-declared General state of communications emergency

44 / 49

AR) When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

A) Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

B) To control a space station

C) During a declared communications emergency

D) Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the BTRC

45 / 49

AS) Which amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?

A) None

B) 11 meters

C) 12 meters

D) 10 meters

46 / 49

AT) When normal communications systems are not available, what means may an amateur station use to
provide essential communications when there is an immediate threat to the safety of human life or the
protection of property?

A) Any means, but only on to RACES recognized emergency stations

B) Any means of radio communication at its disposal

C) Only transmissions sent on internationally recognized emergency channels

D) Only those means of radio communication for which the station is licensed

47 / 49

AU) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for radio-
teletype (RTTY) operation?

A) Select a frequency in the lower end of the phone band

B) Select a frequency in the upper end of the phone band

C) Follow generally accepted band plans for RTTY operation

D) Call CQ in Morse code before attempting to establish a contact in RTTY

48 / 49

AV) Which sideband is commonly used on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?

A) Vestigial Sideband

B) Double Sideband

C) Lower Sideband

D) Upper Sideband

49 / 49

AW) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for HF PSK
operation?

A) Call CQ in Morse code before attempting to establish a contact in PSK

B) Follow generally accepted band plans for PSK operation

C) Select a frequency in the lower end of the phone band

D) Select a frequency in the upper end of the phone band

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Question Bank-2018-2

1 / 50

A) When may the BTRC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations?

A) When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

B) Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

C) When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

D) When the country goes under a WAR

2 / 50

B) What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a
station in distress break in?

A) Change to a different frequency

B) Immediately cease all transmissions

C) Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

D) Continue your communication because you were on frequency first

3 / 50

C) How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

A) The number varies

B) 5

C) 7

D) 8

4 / 50

D) What is the K-index?

A) A measure of the short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field

B) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

C) A measure of the stability of the sun's magnetic field

D) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun

5 / 50

E) What type of transmissions may an amateur station make during a disaster?

A) Only transmissions from an official emergency station

B) Only transmissions when RACES net is activated

C) Transmissions necessary to meet essential communications needs and to facilitate relief actions

D) Only one-way communications

6 / 50

F) Which latitudes have propagation paths that are more sensitive to geomagnetic disturbances?

A) Those at or very near to the equator

B) Those greater than 45 degrees North or South latitude

C) Those between 5 and 45 degrees North or South latitude

D) All paths are affected equally

7 / 50

G) What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

A) Preamble

B) Footer

C) Directory

D) Header

8 / 50

H) What is measured by the solar flux index?

A) The radio energy emitted by the sun

B) The density of the sun's magnetic field

C) The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth

D) A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

9 / 50

I) What is a geomagnetic disturbance?

A) Ripples in the ionosphere

B) A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole

C) A sudden drop in the solar-flux index

D) A significant change in the Earth's magnetic field over a short period of time

10 / 50

J) What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A) 850 Hz

B) 170 Hz

C) 85 Hz

D) 425 Hz

11 / 50

K) What does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for?

A) Manual Frequency Sideband Keying

B) Manual Frequency Shift Keying

C) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

D) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying

12 / 50

L) Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A) A bi-directional antenna

B) A unidirectional antenna

C) An isotropic antenna

D) An omnidirectional antenna

13 / 50

M) What does the Q signal "QSL" mean when operating CW?

A) We have already confirmed by card

B) I acknowledge receipt

C) Send slower

D) We have worked before

14 / 50

N) When are you prohibited from helping a station in distress?

A) When the station is not another amateur station

B) When that station is not transmitting on amateur frequencies

C) When the station in distress offers no call sign

D) You are never prohibited from helping any station in distress

15 / 50

O) What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A) 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day

B) Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

C) Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

D) Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

16 / 50

P) Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the BTRC doesn't require it?

A) To help with a reply if the BTRC requests information on who was control operator of your station at a given date and time

B) The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

C) The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

D) The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

17 / 50

Q) What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

A) To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

B) To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules

C) To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

D) To provide emergency and public safety communications

18 / 50

R) What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code?

A) A slow speed until contact is established

B) The speed at which the CQ was sent

C) 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

D) The speed at which you are most comfortable copying

19 / 50

S) What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

A) Date and time of contact

B) Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

C) Band and/or frequency of the contact

D) All of these choices are correct

20 / 50

T) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?

A) Keep frequency clear

B) Closing station

C) Operating full break-in

D) Listening only for a specific station or stations

21 / 50

U) What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS" when using Morse code?

A) Change frequency

B) Send slower

C) Increase your power

D) Repeat everything twice.

22 / 50

V) What information should be given to a station answering a distress transmission?

A) The ITU region and grid square locator of the emergency

B) The time that the emergency occurred and the local weather

C) The name of the local emergency coordinator

D) The location and nature of the emergency

23 / 50

W) What is QRP operation?

A) Traffic Relay Procedure net operation

B) Low power transmit operation, typically about 5 watts

C) Remote Piloted Model control

D) Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

24 / 50

X) What type of transmission would a control operator be making when transmitting out of the amateur
band without station identification during a life threatening emergency?

A) A prohibited transmission

B) A third party communication

C) An unidentified transmission

D) An auxiliary transmission

25 / 50

Y) What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric
disturbance?

A) Try a different antenna polarization

B) Try a different frequency shift

C) Try a higher frequency

D) Try the other sideband

26 / 50

Z) What does the term zero beat mean in CW operation?

A) Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

B) Matching the speed of the transmitting station

C) Matching the frequency of the transmitting station

D) Sending without error

27 / 50

AA) Which of the following information must a licensee retain as part of their station records?

A) A record of all contacts made with stations in foreign countries

B) The call sign of other amateurs operating your station

C) A copy of all third party messages sent through your station

D) Antenna gain calculations or manufacturer's data for antennas used on 60 meters

28 / 50

AB) What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the BTRC?

A) Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

B) Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

C) Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

D) Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

29 / 50

AC) Which mode should be selected when using a SSB transmitter with an Audio Frequency Shift Keying
(AFSK) RTTY signal?

A) LSB

B) DSB

C) CW

D) USB

30 / 50

AD) Which of the following is required by the BTRC rules when operating in HF band?

A) You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

B) If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

C) You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

D) You must keep a log of all third party traffic

31 / 50

AE) When is an amateur station prevented from using any means at its disposal to assist another station in
distress?

A) Only on authorized HF frequencies

B) Never

C) Only when authorized by the BTRC rule

D) Only when transmitting in RACES

32 / 50

AF) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

A) Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

B) Incoming signals are received between transmitted code character elements

C) Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

D) An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

33 / 50

AG) What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean when operating CW?

A) Zero beat my signal

B) Slow down

C) Send faster

D) Quitting operation

34 / 50

AH) What does the Q signal "QRV" mean when operating CW?

A) I am ready to receive messages

B) I am quitting for the day

C) There is interference on the frequency

D) You are sending too fast

35 / 50

AI) How long is the typical sunspot cycle?

A) Between 20 and 40 hours

B) Approximately 11 years

C) Approximately 28 days

D) Approximately 8 minutes

36 / 50

AJ) What skills learned during Fox Hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

A) Direction-finding skills used to locate stations violating BTRC Rules

B) Identification of different call signs

C) Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

D) Identification of out of band operation

37 / 50

AK) What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message?

A) BK

B) AR

C) KN

D) SK

38 / 50

AL) Where PSK signals are generally found on the 20 meter band?

A) In the weak signal portion of the band

B) Around 14.070 MHz

C) In the low end of the phone band

D) In the high end of the phone band

39 / 50

AM) What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?

A) It offers good performance in weak signal environment without error correction

B) It has built-in error correction

C) It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes

D) It is much higher speed than RTTY

40 / 50

AN) Frequencies may be used by an amateur station to obtain assistance when in distress?

A) Only frequencies in the 80 meter band

B) Any United Nations approved frequency

C) Only frequencies in the 40 meter band

D) Any frequency authorized to the control operator

41 / 50

AO) What is the effect on radio communications when sunspot numbers are high?

A) Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is diminished

B) Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication

C) Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced

D) High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

42 / 50

AP) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

A) Closing station now

B) Listening for novice stations

C) Listening only for a specific station or stations

D) Operating full break-in

43 / 50

AQ) Which emission mode must be used to obtain assistance during a disaster?

A) Only CW

B) Any mode

C) Only SSB and CW

D) Only SSB

44 / 50

AR) What is the A-index?

A) An indicator of the long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field

B) The amount of polarization of the sun's electric field

C) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

D) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun

45 / 50

AS) What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance (SID) have on the daytime ionospheric propagation
of HF radio waves?

A) None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

B) It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

C) It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

D) It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths

46 / 50

AT) What can be an effect of a geomagnetic storm on radio-wave propagation?

A) Improved chances of UHF ducting

B) Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

C) Improved high-latitude HF propagation

D) Improved ground-wave propagation

47 / 50

AU) What is the solar-flux index?

A) A measure of solar activity at 10.7 cm

B) A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth

C) A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions

D) Another name for the American sunspot number

48 / 50

AV) Which of the following describes Baudot RTTY?

A) Utilizes error detection and correction

B) 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits

C) 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits

D) Two major operating modes are SELCAL and LISTEN

49 / 50

AW) What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant
station?

A) Stereographic projection

B) Polar projection

C) Mercator projection

D) Azimuthal projection

50 / 50

AX) Which of the following 20 meter band segments is most often used for most data transmissions?

A) 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

B) 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

C) 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

D) 14.000 - 14.050 MHz

Your score is

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Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2018-3

1 / 50

A) What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

A) To keep the carrier on frequency

B) To limit the modulation index

C) To eliminate self oscillations

D) To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

2 / 50

B) Which of the following is one use for a DSP in an amateur station?

A) To provide adequate grounding

B) To increase antenna gain

C) To remove noise from received signals

D) To increase antenna bandwidth

3 / 50

C) Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies
below 10 MHz?

A) The F1 layer

B) The F2 layer

C) The D layer

D) The E layer

4 / 50

D) How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar
coronal holes?

A) VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

B) HF communications are improved

C) VHF/UHF ducting is improved

D) HF communications are disturbed

5 / 50

E) How long does it take charged particles from Coronal Mass Ejections to affect radio-wave propagation
on the Earth?

A) 20 to 40 hours

B) The effect is instantaneous

C) 28 days

D) 14 days

6 / 50

F) What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

A) They have high intelligibility

B) They have very large swings in signal strength

C) They have a wavering sound

D) All of these choices are correct

7 / 50

G) Which of the following techniques is used to neutralize an RF amplifier?

A) Feed-forward cancellation

B) Negative feedback

C) Positive feedback

D) Feed-forward compensation

8 / 50

H) What we can do by a Spectrum Analyzer?

A) We can measure a single frequency

B) We can measure the RF power

C) We can locate a hidden transmitter

D) We can measure multiple frequency at the same time

9 / 50

I) What are the propagation path or wave for HF radio contact.

A) None of the above

B) Only ground wave propagation

C) Only sky wave propagation

D) Both ground wave and sky wave propagation

10 / 50

J) Which of the following is true about ionospheric absorption near the maximum usable frequency
(MUF)?

A) Absorption is greater for horizontally polarized waves

B) Absorption will be minimum

C) Absorption is greater for vertically polarized waves

D) Absorption approaches maximum

11 / 50

K) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the lowest usable frequency (LUF)?

A) They are bent back to the Earth

B) They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

C) They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

D) They pass through the ionosphere

12 / 50

L) Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during
the day?

A) The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

B) The D layer absorbs these frequencies during daylight hours

C) The F layer absorbs these frequencies during daylight hours

D) The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

13 / 50

M) Which frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar
activity?

A) Frequencies at or above 10 MHz

B) Frequencies above 20 MHz

C) Frequencies near 3.5 MHz

D) Frequencies below 3.5 MHz

14 / 50

N) How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the "S" meter reading on a
distant receiver from S8 to S9?

A) Approximately 2 times

B) Approximately 4 times

C) Approximately 3 times

D) Approximately 5 times

15 / 50

O) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during
daylight hours?

A) Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

B) At the summer solstice

C) At any point in the solar cycle

D) Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

16 / 50

P) What are the two types of transistor we use in general?

A) PNP and PMP

B) NPP and PNP

C) NPN and PNP

D) NPP and NPN

17 / 50

Q) What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

A) The short path azimuth of a distant station

B) The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

C) The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

D) The long path azimuth of a distant station

18 / 50

R) What does MUF stand for?

A) The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

B) The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

C) The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

D) The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

19 / 50

S) What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

A) Better for measuring computer circuits

B) Faster response

C) Better for RF measurements

D) Significantly better precision for most uses

20 / 50

T) How is DSP filtering accomplished?

A) By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

B) By up-converting the signal to VHF

C) By using direct signal phasing

D) By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing

21 / 50

U) What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

A) Improved HF long path propagation

B) Reduced long delayed echoes

C) Aurora that can reflect VHF signals

D) Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

22 / 50

V) Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A) Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

B) Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

C) Signals are scattered from the troposphere which is not a good reflector

D) Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

23 / 50

W) Which of the following is the best instrument to use to check the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A) A monitoring oscilloscope

B) A field-strength meter

C) A wavemeter

D) A sidetone monitor

24 / 50

X) Which of the following is needed for a DSP IF filter?

A) An Analog to Digital Converter

B) Digital to Analog Converter

C) A Digital Processor Chip

D) All of the these answers are correct

25 / 50

Y) Which of the following instruments may be used to measure the output of a single-sideband
transmitter when performing a two-tone test of amplitude linearity?

A) An audio distortion analyzer

B) An oscilloscope

C) A high impedance audio voltmeter

D) A directional wattmeter

26 / 50

Z) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency
(MUF) between the two stations s 16 MHz?

A) 20 meters

B) 2 meters

C) 40 meters

D) 80 meters

27 / 50

AA) Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?

A) The F2 layer

B) The D layer

C) The E layer

D) The F1 layer

28 / 50

AB) What happens to HF propagation when the lowest usable frequency (LUF) exceeds the maximum
usable frequency (MUF)?

A) Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

B) Double hop propagation along the path is more common

C) No HF radio frequency will support communications over the path

D) HF communications over the path are enhanced at the frequency where the LUF and MUF are the same

29 / 50

AC) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency
(MUF) between the two stations is 22 MHz?

A) 40 meters

B) 10 meters

C) 15 meters

D) 20 meters

30 / 50

AD) Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via
scatter propagation?

A) The signal is heard on a frequency above the maximum usable frequency

B) The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance

C) The communication is during a sunspot maximum

D) The signal is heard on a frequency below the maximum usable frequency

31 / 50

AE) What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the
quality of a transmitted signal?

A) The transmitter balanced mixer output

B) The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

C) The local oscillator of the transmitter

D) The audio input of the transmitter

32 / 50

AF) What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

A) Percentage of carrier phase shift

B) Carrier and undesired sideband suppression

C) Percentage of frequency modulation

D) Linearity

33 / 50

AG) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the
F2 region?

A) 2,500 miles

B) 1,200 miles

C) 12,000 miles

D) 180 miles

34 / 50

AH) How is a noise bridge normally used?

A) It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the antenna's noise figure

B) It is connected between an antenna and ground and tuned for minimum SWR

C) It is connected between a receiver and an antenna of unknown impedance and is adjusted for minimum noise

D) t is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and tuned for minimum SWR

35 / 50

AI) What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

A) Short distance HF propagation using high elevation angles

B) Double hop propagation near the LUF

C) Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

D) Propagation near the MUF

36 / 50

AJ) When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your location?

A) At midnight during the summer

B) At noon during the summer

C) At dusk in the spring and fall

D) At noon during the winter

37 / 50

AK) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E
region?

A) 180 miles

B) 12,000 miles

C) 2,500 miles

D) 1,200 miles

38 / 50

AL) Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

A) Input impedance is much lower

B) Complex waveforms can be measured

C) Complex impedances can be easily measured

D) An oscilloscope uses less power

39 / 50

AM) What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground
wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?

A) Ground wave

B) Scatter

C) Sporadic-E skip

D) Short-path skip

40 / 50

AN) What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?

A) It controls differential gain

B) It eliminates AC hum from the power supply

C) It reduces incidental grid modulation

D) It cancels the effects of positive feedback

41 / 50

AO) What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A) An ammeter

B) An ohmmeter

C) A signal generator

D) An oscilloscope

42 / 50

AP) What is the meaning of AVO meter we are using as testing device?

A) Ampere Volt Ohms measuring meter

B) Acceleration Volt Ohms measuring meter

C) Accelaration Velocity Ohms measuring meter

D) Ampere Velocity Ohms measuring meter

43 / 50

AQ) If the HF radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good on the 24-MHz and 28-MHz bands for several
days, when might you expect a similar condition to occur?

A) 14 days later

B) 7 days later

C) 28 days later

D) 90 days later

44 / 50

AR) Why we use a linear RF amplifier?

A) To increase the out put RF power of the transmitter

B) To decrease the out put RF power of the transmitter

C) To increase the out put RF power of the antenna

D) To fine tune the out put RF power of the transmitter

45 / 50

AS) What is a reliable way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support
28-MHz propagation between your station and Western Europe?

A) Listen for signals on a 28 MHz international beacon

B) Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe

C) Send a series of dots on the 28 MHz band and listen for echoes from your signal

D) Listen to WWV propagation signals on the 28 MHz band

46 / 50

AT) What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A) Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several radio wave paths

B) Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

C) The ionospheric layer involved is unstable

D) The E-region is not present

47 / 50

AU) What instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter
adjustments?

A) An antenna noise bridge

B) A Q meter

C) A field-strength meter

D) A multimeter

48 / 50

AV) Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver IF filter created with a DSP as compared to an
analog filter?

A) Mixing products are greatly reduced

B) Fewer digital components are required

C) A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

D) The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

49 / 50

AW) Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

A) Because it is the highest ionospheric region

B) Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions

C) Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

D) All of these choices are correct

50 / 50

AX) What does LUF stand for?

A) The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

B) The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

C) The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points

D) The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Ham Exam

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Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2018-4

1 / 50

A) Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

A) Harmonics and distortion could result

B) Magnetic flux would increase with frequency

C) Temporary changes of the core permeability could result

D) RF susceptance would increase

2 / 50

B) Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?

A) Aluminum nitride

B) Doped Silicon

C) Doped Platinum

D) Nickel Hydride

3 / 50

C) What is the main reason to use keyed connectors over non-keyed types?

A) Higher current carrying capacity

B) All of these choices are correct

C) Reduced chance of damage due to incorrect mating

D) Prevention of use by unauthorized persons

4 / 50

D) Why would it be unwise to power your station by back feeding the output of a gasoline generator into
your house wiring by connecting the generator through an AC wall outlet?

A) It is prone to RF interference

B) It might present a hazard for electric company workers

C) It may disconnect your RF ground

D) None of the above; this is an excellent expedient

5 / 50

E) What is one way a noise bridge might be used?

A) Pre-tuning a linear amplifier

B) Pre-tuning an antenna tuner

C) Determining an antenna's gain in dBi

D) Determining the line loss of the antenna system

6 / 50

F) Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

A) The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

B) The radiation resistance of an antenna

C) The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter

D) The radiation pattern of an antenna

7 / 50

G) Which of the following describes a Type-N connector?

A) An audio connector used in surround sound installations

B) A moisture resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

C) A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

D) A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems

8 / 50

H) What does an S-meter measure?

A) Impedance

B) Conductance

C) Transmitter power output

D) Received signal strength

9 / 50

I) Which of the following can be measured with a directional wattmeter?

A) Antenna front-to-back ratio

B) Standing Wave Ratio

C) Radio wave propagation

D) RF interference

10 / 50

J) What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the
power source?

A) The electrical load is shorted

B) No current can flow through the circuit

C) The source delivers minimum power to the load

D) The source can deliver maximum power to the load

11 / 50

K) Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

A) Type N

B) DB-9

C) Type SMA

D) PL-259

12 / 50

L) Which of the following is a reason to place ferrite beads around audio cables to reduce common mode
RF interference?

A) They increase the admittance of the cable

B) They act as a shunt capacitor

C) They lower the impedance of the cable

D) They act as a series inductor

13 / 50

M) Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75
meter band?

A) Picket Fencing' signal variation

B) BTRC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band

C) The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

D) The HF mobile antenna system

14 / 50

N) What is one measurement that can be made with a dip meter?

A) The notch depth of a filter

B) The tilt of the ionosphere

C) The resonant frequency of a circuit

D) The gain of an antenna

15 / 50

O) What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single sideband phone
transmitter?

A) It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver

B) It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone

C) It reduces average transmitter power requirements

D) It improves voice-frequency fidelity