quiz – UCTC

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Qustion Bank -2025

Question Bank -2023

You have 30 seconds per question.

Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-1

1 / 100

A) Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter ?

A) USB

B) DSB

C) LSB

D) CW

2 / 100

B) What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the lnternet?

A) gateway

B) digipeater

C) repeater

D) beacon

3 / 100

C) What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?

A) Wave spread

B) Wave speed

C) Waveform

D) Wavelenglh

4 / 100

D) What is the approximate length of each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?

A) L/3 wavelength

B) L/4 wavelength

C) 1/2 wavelength

D) 2/3 wavelength

5 / 100

E) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely inductive circuit is:

A) 0 deg

B) 90 deg

C) 45 deg

D) 180 deg

6 / 100

F) lf 120 volt is measured across a 470 ohm resistor, approximately how much current is flowing through this resistor?

A) 56.40 ampere

B) 5.64 ampere

C) 3.92 ampere

D) 0.25 ampere

7 / 100

G) The Phonetic used to represent alphabet L is

A) LEEMAH

B) lIMA

C) LEMA

D) LEEMA

8 / 100

H) What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?

A) Switch

B) Capacitor

C) lnductor

D) Diode

9 / 100

I) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely capacitive circuit is:

A) 0 deg

B) 180 deg

C) 45 deg

D) 90 deg

10 / 100

J) What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Vertical

B) Horizontal

C) Right-ha nd circular

D) Left-hand circular

11 / 100

K) Which of the following is the HF frequency range allotted for Amateur service?

A) 28 29.4MHz

B) 28-29.1MHZ

C) 28-28.7MH2

D) 28-28.4MH2

12 / 100

L) A L2 volt battery supplies a current of 0.25 ampere to a load. What is the input resistance of this load?

A) 48 ohm

B) 3 ohm

C) 0.02 ohm

D) 480 ohm

13 / 100

M) Two 500 pF capacitors in series produce an equivalent capacitance of:

A) 250 pF

B) 1000 pF

C) 1nF

D) 2000 pF

14 / 100

N) How can the current be calculated when the voltage and resistance in a dc circuit is known?

A) l= E/R

B) l=ExR

C) P=lxE

D) l=RxE

15 / 100

O) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on a different channel?

A) Space station

B) Relay station

C) Repeater station

D) Telecommand station

16 / 100

P) Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

A) Receiver

B) All ofthese choices are correct

C) Antenna and feed line

D) Transmitter

17 / 100

Q) How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

A) 2.54 dB higher

B) 3 dB higher

C) About the same

D) 3 dB lower

18 / 100

R) The relation between B and a is

A) B = 1/(1-a )

B) B = a/(1 +a)

C) B= a/ (1 -a)

D) B = (1-a) /a

19 / 100

S) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

A) 0.3 volts

B) 1.0 volts

C) 0.1volt

D) 0.7 volts

20 / 100

T) Two resistors are connected in series. The combined resistance is 1200 ohm. lf one of the resistors is 800 ohm, what is the value of the other?

A) 800 ohm

B) 400 ohm

C) 1000 ohm

D) 1200 ohm

21 / 100

U) lf you move towards West from the Prime Meridian then the time will

A) All of them

B) Decrease

C) Remain same

D) lncrease

22 / 100

V) The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is

A) 180 deg

B) 45 deg

C) 0 deg

D) 90 deg

23 / 100

W) What are the two common polarization types for antenna?

A) H orizontal & Lateral

B) All of the above

C) Vertical& Lateral

D) Horizontal & Vertical

24 / 100

X) Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation ?

A) lnsufficient bandwidth

B) lnsufficient audio

C) Excessive bandwidth

D) Frequency drift

25 / 100

Y) Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

A) Rubber

B) Copper

C) Wood

D) Glass

26 / 100

Z) What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?

A) 30 to 300 MHz

B) 300 to 3000 kHz

C) 30 to 300 kHz

D) 300 to 3000 MHz

27 / 100

AA) For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is the

A) Phase velocity

B) Tilt angle

C) Propagation constant

D) Attenuation

28 / 100

AB) How many dB change is resulted from a two-times increase or decrease in power?

A) Approximately 2 dB

B) Approximately 3 dB

C) Approximately 5 dB

D) Approximately 12 dB

29 / 100

AC) Which of the following band is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Double sideband

B) Vestigialsideband

C) U pper sideband

D) Lower sideband

30 / 100

AD) Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

A) Ohms

B) Volts

C) Amperes

D) Watts

31 / 100

AE) What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

A) SK

B) AR

C) KN

D) BK

32 / 100

AF) Balloons are filled with :

A) Argon

B) Nitrogen

C) Oxygen

D) Helium

33 / 100

AG) How can the power (W) be calculated when the voltage (V) and current (l) in a DC circuit is known?

A) W=l^2xR

B) W=V+l

C) W=Vxl

D) W= V/I

34 / 100

AH) How can the current (l) be calculated when the voltage (E) and resistance ( R) in a DC circuit is known?

A) l=RxE

B) l=ExR

C) l=E/R

D) P= lxE

35 / 100

AI) Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band?

A) 12.940 MHz

B) 17.940 M Hz

C) 24.940 MHz

D) 14.100 MHz

36 / 100

AJ) The power can be expressed as

A) P=l2R

B) V=lR

C) Both b & c

D) P=Vl

37 / 100

AK) For which of the following modes of a Class C power stage is appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) SSB

C) AM

D) cw

38 / 100

AL) Which of the following technique uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?

A) Double sideband

B) Phase modulation

C) Single sideband

D) Frequency modulation

39 / 100

AM) A light bulb draws 0.5 A from a L2 V battery when lit. How much power does it consume?

A) 24 W

B) 0.03 W

C) 6 W

D) 3 W

40 / 100

AN) Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 145.52 MHz?

A) 14 meter band

B) 2 meter band

C) 6 meter band

D) 20 meter band

41 / 100

AO) Which band is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?

A) Upper sideband

B) Lower sideband

C) Vestigial sideband

D) Dou ble sideband

42 / 100

AP) Which of the following is the HF frequency range allotted for Amateur service?

A) 24 890-24 990KHz

B) 24 890-24 995KHz

C) 24 800-24 990KHz

D) 24 880-24 990KHz

43 / 100

AQ) What is the approximate length of each side of a quad antenna driven element?

A) 3/4 wavelength

B) 1/4 wavelength

C) 1/2 wavelength

D) 1 wavelength

44 / 100

AR) The frequency limits of the UHF spectrum are

A) 3 to 300 MHz

B) 100 to 3000 MHz

C) 300 to 3000 MHz

D) 30 to 100 MHz

45 / 100

AS) What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

A) 80 and 100 ohms

B) 25 and 30 ohms

C) 500 and 750 ohms

D) 50 and 75 ohms

46 / 100

AT) What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

A) Voltage

B) Resistance

C) Capacitance

D) Current

47 / 100

AU) The approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts

A) is 3 dB

B) is 12 dB

C) is 0 dB

D) is 6 dB

48 / 100

AV) A method of multiplexing in which the total frequency spectrum available is used by each channel, but only for part of the time :

A) TDM

B) TDM

C) SDM

D) FDM

49 / 100

AW) What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

A) Repeater station

B) Earth station

C) Message forwarding station

D) Beacon station

50 / 100

AX) Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?

A) The ionosphere

B) The magnetosphere

C) The troposphere

D) The stratosphere

51 / 100

AY) What is the functioning role of an antenna in receiving mode?

A) lnverter

B) Sensor

C) Radiator

D) Converter

52 / 100

AZ) Who must designate the station control operator?

A) The FCC

B) The station licensee

C) The ITU

D) The frequency coordinator

53 / 100

BA) AccordinB to'lnstructions for Amateur Radio Usages and Procedures in Bangladesh' maximum
allowable output power for VHF/UHF Radio set is

A) 35 Watt

B) 25 Watt

C) 40 Watt

D) 30 Watt

54 / 100

BB) For Bangladeshi Amateur Radio License Holder, the applicable call sign charges (for once) is BDT:

A) 1000

B) 1500

C) 5000

D) 2500

55 / 100

BC) What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

A) Frequency convolution

B) Frequency conversion

C) Frequency modu lation

D) Frequency transformation

56 / 100

BD) What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit?

A) Voltmeter

B) Transformer

C) lnductor

D) Resistor

57 / 100

BE) The resistance value of an insulator is

A) None

B) Very High

C) Zero

D) Less than Unity

58 / 100

BF) Amateur satellites afford an opportunity to use frequencies above _ for long-distance communications

A) HF

B) LF

C) UVF

D) Ku

59 / 100

BG) Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?

A) 10 meters

B) 15 meters

C) 12 meters

D) None

60 / 100

BH) A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave is called

A) Loudspeaker

B) Microphone

C) Transducer

D) Antenna

61 / 100

BI) As what is the value of an AC waveform, representing the equivalent heating effect to a DC voltage, known as?

A) RMS value

B) Average value

C) Corrected value

D) Peak value

62 / 100

BJ) Radar altimeter is used for measurement of :

A) Range

B) Height

C) Bearing

D) Speed

63 / 100

BK) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 50 meter band?

A) 3 kHz

B) 5.6 kHz

C) 2.8 kHz

D) 1.8 kHz

64 / 100

BL) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data transmission on 20 meter band?

A) 19.6 kilobaud

B) 1200 baud

C) 56 kilobaud

D) 300 baud

65 / 100

BM) What type of device is often used to enable the matching of the transmitter output to an lmpedance other than 50 ohms?

A) Antenna coupler

B) Balanced modulator

C) Q Multiplier

D) SWR Bridge

66 / 100

BN) What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur raio installation?

A) 50 ohms

B) 600 ohms

C) 12 ohms

D) 8 ohms

67 / 100

BO) ln a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?

A) Reactance

B) Reluctance

C) Admittance

D) Resistance

68 / 100

BP) The number to be dialed or called to reach a subscriber in the same local network of numbering area is :

A) Toll access code

B) Local code

C) Area code

D) Subscriber No

69 / 100

BQ) Under what type of control do APRS network digipeaters operate?

A) Remote

B) Local

C) Automatic

D) Manual

70 / 100

BR) What frequency range is referred to as HF?

A) 300 to 3000 MHz

B) 30 to 300 MHz

C) 300 to 3000 kHz

D) 3 to 30 MHz

71 / 100

BS) Three capacitors of 1mF are connected in parallel. The equivalent capacitance is

A) 33.33 mF

B) 0.3 mF

C) 3.0 mF

D) 0.33 mF

72 / 100

BT) The DC current drawn by the final stage of a linear amplifier is 100 mA at 100 V. How much power is consumed?

A) 100 watt

B) 10 watt

C) 1 watt

D) 1 kilo watt

73 / 100

BU) The abbreviation using the Q code for high power is:

A) QRH

B) QRP

C) QRI

D) QRO

74 / 100

BV) The filament of an electric bulb is made of :

A) None of these

B) Tungsten

C) Nichrome

D) Graphite

75 / 100

BW) Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A) Lower sideband

B) Double sideband

C) Vestigial sideband

D) U pper sideband

76 / 100

BX) Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class AB

D) Class C

77 / 100

BY) Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current flowing on the shield of a microphone cable?

A) Preamplifier

B) Ferrite choke

C) Low-pass filter

D) Band-pass filter

78 / 100

BZ) Resolution of laser printer is specified in terms of:

A) CPM

B) DPI

C) LPM

D) PPM

79 / 100

CA) ln Re8ion 3, 5 830-5 850MHz band is allotted for Amateu r-satellite for communication

A) Space-to-earth

B) Earth-to-space

C) None of these

D) Both a & b

80 / 100

CB) The VHF frequency range that is authorized to Amateurs is

A) 144-146M Hz

B) 140-146MHz

C) 140-144MHz

D) 142-146MHz

81 / 100

CC) BTRC is the abbreviation of:

A) Bangladesh Telecommunication and Radio Commission

B) Bangladesh Telecommunication Regulation Commission

C) Bangladesh Telecom Regulator's Council

D) Bangladesh Telecommu nication Regulatory Commission

82 / 100

CD) What brief statement is often transmitted in place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a
repeater?

A) The repeater call sign followed by your call sign

B) The letters "QSY" followed by your call sign

C) The words "Hello test" followed by your call sign

D) Your call sign

83 / 100

CE) A fax transmission is usually at a ----- mode

A) Full-duplex

B) Simplex

C) Multiplex

D) Half-duplex

84 / 100

CF) Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands?

A) Vestigial sideband

B) Double sideband

C) U pper sideband

D) Lower sideband

85 / 100

CG) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

A) 0.3 volts

B) 0.1volt

C) 1.0 volts

D) 0.7 volts

86 / 100

CH) According to 'lnstructions for Amateur Radio Usages and Procedures in Bangladesh' maximum
allowable output power for VHF/UHF Walkie-Talkie set is?

A) 4 watt

B) 3 Watt

C) 5 Watt

D) 2 Watt

87 / 100

CI) which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth in order to minimize noise and
interference for CW reception?

A) 5000 Hz

B) 500 Hz

C) 1000 Hz

D) 2400 Hz

88 / 100

CJ) You are having trouble with reception due to interference from another station. The Q code to be used would be:

A) QRH

B) QRO

C) QRI

D) QRM

89 / 100

CK) Washing soda is the common name for:

A) Sodium bica rbonate

B) Calcium bicarbonate

C) Sodium carbonate

D) Calcium carbonate

90 / 100

CL) What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a so-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance?

A) 0:0

B) 1:1

C) 50:50

D) 2:1

91 / 100

CM) What is the frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 300 mm in vacuam

A) 1 GHz

B) 100 MHz

C) 100 kHz

D) 1 MHz

92 / 100

CN) Two 10 kilo ohm resistors are connected in parallel. lf the voltage from a battery across the resistors sets up a current of 5mA in the one resistor, how much current flows in the second?

A) smA

B) 10 mA

C) 20 mA

D) 2mA

93 / 100

CO) Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?

A) Rubber

B) Wood

C) Glass

D) Copper

94 / 100

CP) What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?

A) Ampere-hours

B) lnductance

C) Capacitance

D) Voltage

95 / 100

CQ) Which among the following elucidate the generation of electromagntic waves?

A) Gauss's law

B) Kirchoff's law

C) Ampere's law

D) Faraday's law

96 / 100

CR) What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES )?

A) Licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for commu nications duty in the public service

B) A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies

C) A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service

D) Licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency

97 / 100

CS) ln radio communication link, what is the shape/nature of waves generated by transmitting antenna?

A) Plane

B) Square

C) Spherical

D) Triangular

98 / 100

CT) What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?

A) Electromagnetic

B) Magnetostrictive

C) Surface acoustic

D) Electrostatic

99 / 100

CU) What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain frequency and blocks electrical energy above that frequency?

A) a low-pass filter

B) a high-pass filter

C) an input filter

D) a band-pass filter

100 / 100

CV) The speed of light is :

A) 300,000,000 km/s

B) 300,000,000 mm/s

C) 300,000,000 mi/s

D) 300,000,000 m/s

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Ham Exam

You have 30 seconds per question.

Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-2

1 / 100

A) The Q code for "standby" is:

A) QRX

B) QRS

C) QRN

D) QRM

2 / 100

B) Which is the correct Q Code for "shall I stop sending?"

A) QTH

B) QRL

C) QRV

D) QRK

3 / 100

C) The term "5 and 9" used to describe a signal, is in which code?

A) RST code

B) Q code

C) Morse code

D) Color code

4 / 100

D) Which of the following might be used to process si8nals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?

A) RF amplifier

B) lF amplifier

C) Filter

D) Carrier oscillator

5 / 100

E) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

A) 180 degrees

B) 270 degrees

C) 360 degrees

D) 90 degrees

6 / 100

F) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 2m amateur band?

A) 142000-146000 kHz

B) 144000-146000 kHz

C) 144000-145000 kHz

D) 145000-145995 kHz

7 / 100

G) what is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a silicon diode?

A) 0.7 volts

B) 1.0 volts

C) 0.1volt

D) 0.3 volts

8 / 100

H) The frequency of 21.250 is in the radio amateur:

A) 40 meter band

B) 21 meter band

C) 15 meter band

D) 30 meter band

9 / 100

I) Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?

A) Bypass inductor

B) Forward-biased diode

C) Bypass capacitor

D) Reverse-biased diode

10 / 100

J) What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

A) 16.4 feet

B) 10.5 feet

C) 8.2 feet

D) 21.0 feet

11 / 100

K) which of the following is the most commonly used digital logic family of integrated circuits?

A) TTL

B) CMOS

C) RTL

D) PMOS

12 / 100

L) What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?

A) Pulse modulation

B) Amplitude modulation

C) Multiplex modulation

D) Phase modulation

13 / 100

M) A station that is intended to be operated while it is in motion or while it is stationary at an unspecified place is called

A) A removable radio station

B) An amateur radio station

C) A mobile station

D) A portable station

14 / 100

N) identify the correct Q code for "your signals are fading"

A) QRN

B) QSL

C) QSB

D) QRO

15 / 100

O) Which measurement of an AC signal is equivalent to a DC voltage of the same value?

A) The RMS value

B) The peak-to-pea k value

C) The reciprocal of the RMS value

D) The peak value

16 / 100

P) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 4Om amateur band?

A) 7000-7150 kHz

B) 7000-7350 kHz

C) 14000-14350 kHz

D) 7000-7100 kHz

17 / 100

Q) Why we use a linear RF amplifier?

A) To decrease the out put RF power of the transmitter

B) To increase the out put RF power of the transmitter

C) To fine tune the out put RF power of the transmitter

D) To increase the out put RF power ofthe antenna

18 / 100

R) What are the upper and lower frequencies in the 2Om amateur band?

A) 14450-14150 kHz

B) 14300-14000 kHz

C) 14000-14350 kHz

D) 14350-14250 kHz

19 / 100

S) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 re8ion?

A) 2,500 miles

B) 180 miles

C) 12,000 miles

D) 1,200 miles

20 / 100

T) One of the following is not a conductor:

A) Mica

B) Silver

C) Copper

D) Aluminum

21 / 100

U) Repeaters only normally operate on which mode:

A) CW

B) SSB

C) AM

D) FM

22 / 100

V) What does MUF stand for?

A) The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

B) The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

C) The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

D) The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

23 / 100

W) What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

A) Magnetizing current

B) Excitation current

C) Direct current

D) Stabilizing current

24 / 100

X) What component should be added to a capacitor in a circuit to increase the circuit capacitance?

A) An inductor in series

B) A resistor in series

C) A capacitor in parallel

D) A capacitor in series

25 / 100

Y) What does LUF stand for?

A) The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

B) The Longest Universal Function for communicat;ons between two points

C) The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

D) The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

26 / 100

Z) Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

A) 30 amperes

B) 100 amperes

C) 60 amperes

D) 15 amperes

27 / 100

AA) What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

A) Photon emission

B) Photosynthesis

C) Photon decom position

D) Photovoltaic conversion

28 / 100

AB) QRP means

A) Close down

B) Low Power

C) Address is

D) High Power

29 / 100

AC) The correct Q Code for "change frequency to" is

A) QSR

B) QSX

C) QSY

D) QTH

30 / 100

AD) The opposition to the flow of current in a circuit is called:

A) Capacitance

B) lnductance

C) Emission

D) Resistance

31 / 100

AE) Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

A) The D layer

B) The F1 layer

C) The F2 layer

D) The E layer

32 / 100

AF) What is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial cables used for antenna feedlines at amateur stations?

A) 80 and 100 ohms

B) 50 and 75 ohms

C) 25 and 30 ohms

D) 500 and 750 ohms

33 / 100

AG) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the lowest usable frequency {LUF)?

A) They pass through the ionosphere

B) They are bent back to the Earth

C) They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

D) They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

34 / 100

AH) What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

A) To minimize SWR at the antenna

B) To maximize the transfer of power

C) To reduce power dissipation in the transmitter

D) To minimize SWR in the transmission line

35 / 100

AI) Which type of integrated circuit is an operational amplifier?

A) Programmable

B) MMIC

C) Digital

D) Analog

36 / 100

AJ) What does an S-meter measure?

A) Transmitter power output

B) Conductance

C) Received signal strength

D) lmpedance

37 / 100

AK) Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

A) DB-9

B) Type N

C) Type SMA

D) PL-259

38 / 100

AL) What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?

A) 0.17 ohms

B) 10000 ohms

C) 80 ohms

D) 5.9 ohms

39 / 100

AM) What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

A) 1/2 wavelength

B) L/4 wavelength

C) 1 wavelength

D) 3/4 wavelength

40 / 100

AN) What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a transmitted signal?

A) The local oscillator of the transmitter

B) The audio input of the transmitter

C) The transmitter balanced mixer output

D) The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

41 / 100

AO) Which the correct Q-code is for "Are you ready?"

A) QRV

B) QRL

C) QRG

D) QRK

42 / 100

AP) Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?

A) Doped Platinum

B) Nickel Hydride

C) Aluminum nitride

D) Doped Silicon

43 / 100

AQ) QRT means:

A) Low Power

B) Close down

C) Fading

D) Stand By

44 / 100

AR) Which of the followin8 emission types are permissible while operating HF mobile?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) CW

C) SSB

D) FM

45 / 100

AS) Will you tell me my exact frequency may be transmitted as:

A) QSL

B) QRI

C) QRU

D) QRG

46 / 100

AT) What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-0hm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance

A) 12.2 to 1

B) 150 to 1

C) 300 to 1

D) 24.4 to 1

47 / 100

AU) One of the following is not an insulator

A) Plastic

B) Mica

C) Ceramic

D) Copper

48 / 100

AV) How many states are there in a 3-bit binary counter?

A) 6

B) 3

C) 16

D) 8

49 / 100

AW) What is the output of a NOR gate given that both inputs are "zero"?

A) The opposite from the previous state

B) One

C) Zero

D) Minus one

50 / 100

AX) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

A) 270 deBrees

B) 90 degrees

C) 1.80 degrees

D) 360 degrees

51 / 100

AY) What unit is used to measure impedance?

A) Ampere

B) Watt

C) ohm

D) Volt

52 / 100

AZ) Where an S-meter is generally found?

A) ln a SWR bridge

B) ln a conductance bridge

C) ln a transmitter

D) ln a receiver

53 / 100

BA) What is the correct formula for Ohms law

A) l=V*R

B) R=V*l

C) V=R*l

D) None of the above

54 / 100

BB) What is the output of a two-input NAND gate, Given both inputs are "one"?

A) Two

B) One

C) Minus One

D) Zero

55 / 100

BC) What we can do by a Spectrum Analyzer?

A) We can locate a hidden transmltter

B) We can measure multiple frequency at the same time

C) We can measure the RF power

D) We can measure a single frequency

56 / 100

BD) What are the lower and upper frequencies of the 15m amateur band?

A) 21.100-21,.350 MHz

B) 21.350-21.450 MHz

C) 21.000-21.350 MHz

D) 21.000-21.450 MHz

57 / 100

BE) Which of the following is a characteristic of a class A amplifier?

A) Low distortion

B) No need for bias

C) High efficiency

D) Low standby power

58 / 100

BF) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

A) Reluctance

B) Conductance

C) Reactance

D) Admittance

59 / 100

BG) How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the "S" meter reading on a
distant receiver from 58 to 59?

A) Approximately 2 times

B) Approximately 4 times

C) Approximately 3 times

D) Approximately 5 times

60 / 100

BH) What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna ?

A) sWR increases

B) Gain increases

C) Wind load decreases

D) Weight decreases

61 / 100

BI) Which the correct Q Code is for "are my signals fading?"

A) QRN

B) QSB

C) QRH

D) QSD

62 / 100

BJ) ln what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?

A) ohms per 100 ft

B) dB per 1000 ft

C) dB per 100 ft

D) ohms per 1000 ft

63 / 100

BK) What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

A) 84.5 feet

B) 131.8 feet

C) 263.6 feet

D) 42.2 feet

64 / 100

BL) What component should be added to an inductor in a circuit to increase the circuit inductance?

A) A resistor in parallel

B) An inductor in series

C) A capacitor in series

D) An inductor in parallel

65 / 100

BM) A potentiometer is a

A) Capacitor

B) Meter

C) Battery

D) Variable resistor

66 / 100

BN) Which of the following Solid state devices are most like a vacuum tube in its general characteristics?

A) A tunnel diode

B) A varistor

C) A bipolar transistor

D) An FET

67 / 100

BO) what is the correct Q Code for "what is your location?"

A) QTH

B) QSP

C) QRP

D) QSY

68 / 100

BP) Which of the following is an advantage of a Class C amplifier?

A) Linear operation

B) No need for tuned circuits

C) High efficiency

D) All of these answers are correct

69 / 100

BQ) When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your location?

A) At noon durinB the winter

B) At dusk in the spring and fall

C) At midnight during the summer

D) At noon during the summer

70 / 100

BR) What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twin lead?

A) 300 ohms

B) 100 ohms

C) 50 ohms

D) 75 ohms

71 / 100

BS) Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?

A) The D layer

B) The E layer

C) The F1 layer

D) The F2 layer

72 / 100

BT) what is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

A) Frequency transformation

B) Frequency convolution

C) Frequency conversion

D) Frequency modulation

73 / 100

BU) identify the correct Q code for "are you being interfered with?"

A) QRN

B) QRX

C) QRM

D) QSL

74 / 100

BV) Which of the following is the best instrument to use to check the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A) A monitoring oscilloscope

B) A sidetone monitor

C) A wavemeter

D) A field-strength meter

75 / 100

BW) What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

A) 12 volts

B) 6 volts

C) 10.5 volts

D) 8.5 volts

76 / 100

BX) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

A) Reluctance

B) Reactance

C) Conductance

D) Admittance

77 / 100

BY) What is the total resistance of three 100-0hm resistors in parallel?

A) 0.30 ohms

B) 300 ohms

C) 33.3 ohms

D) 0.33 ohms

78 / 100

BZ) What are the propagation path or wave for HF radio contact?

A) Only ground wave propagation

B) Both ground wave and sky wave propagation

C) None of the above

D) Only sky wave propagation

79 / 100

CA) What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A) A signalgenerator

B) An oscilloscope

C) An ammeter

D) An ohmmeter

80 / 100

CB) Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A) A length of transmission line

B) A transformer

C) All of these choices are correct

D) A Pi-network

81 / 100

CC) Which of the following techniques is used to neutralize an RF amplifier?

A) Negative feedback

B) Feed-forwa rd cancellation

C) Positive feedback

D) Feed-forward compensation

82 / 100

CD) Which is the correct Q Code for "when will you call me again?"

A) QSD

B) QSB

C) QRH

D) QRX

83 / 100

CE) Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna driven element?

A) 3/4 wavelength

B) 1/2 wavelenBlh

C) 2/3 wavelength

D) 1/4 wavelength

84 / 100

CF) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the Eregion?

A) 1,200 miles

B) 2,500 miles

C) 12,000 miles

D) 180 miles

85 / 100

CG) The current through a 100 ohm resistor is to 120ma. What is the potential difference across the resistor?

A) 8,33 volt

B) 120 volt

C) 12 volt

D) 83,33 volt

86 / 100

CH) Which is the correct Q Code for "can you acknowledge receipt?"

A) QSL

B) QRV

C) QRK

D) QRL

87 / 100

CI) Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

A) octal

B) RJ-11

C) PL-2s9

D) DB-2s

88 / 100

CJ) What are the two types of transistor we use in general?

A) PNP and PMP

B) NPN and PNP

C) NPP and NPN

D) NPP and PNP

89 / 100

CK) Amateur radio stations do not have to keep a log book:

A) For 80m transmissions

B) For 20m transmissions

C) For 144 MHz or 430 MHz transmissions

D) For 10m transmissions

90 / 100

CL) What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

A) 8.2 feet

B) 32.8 feet

C) 24.6 feet

D) 16.4 feet

91 / 100

CM) What are the lower and upper frequencies in the 8Om amateur band?

A) 3400-3700 kHz

B) 3500-380O kHz

C) 3500-350O kHz

D) 3000-3800 kHz

92 / 100

CN) The resistance value of 1200 ohms can be expressed as:

A) 1.2 kilo ohms

B) L2 kilo ohms

C) 1.2 Mega ohms

D) 0.12 Mega ohms

93 / 100

CO) Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

A) Heater

B) Screen grid

C) Suppressor grid

D) control grid

94 / 100

CP) How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

A) lt increases

B) lt is independent of frequency

C) lt decreases

D) lt reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz

95 / 100

CQ) What is the value of each resistor if three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of
resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms?

A) 1500 ohms

B) 150 ohms

C) 90 ohms

D) 175 ohms

96 / 100

CR) What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

A) 300 microfarads

B) 0.33 m icrofarads

C) 0.30 microfarads

D) 33.3 microfa rads

97 / 100

CS) What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far foi grorind
wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?

A) Scatter

B) Sporadic-E skip

C) Ground wave

D) Short-path skip

98 / 100

CT) What unit is used to measure reactance?

A) Siemens

B) Farad

C) Ampere

D) ohm

99 / 100

CU) What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

A) Synthesizing

B) Cancellation

C) Multiplying

D) Heterodyning

100 / 100

CV) identify the correct Q code for "Send slower"

A) QRO

B) QRQ

C) QSP

D) QRS

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Ham Exam

You have 30 seconds per question.

Give your answer quickly.

Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2023-3

1 / 71

A) Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compa red to other voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

A) Less sub.iect to static crashes (atmospherics)

B) Ease of tuning on receive

C) Less bandwidth used and high power efficiency

D) Very high fidelity voice modulation

2 / 71

B) Which of the following is prohibited by the BTRC Rules for amateur radio stations?

A) Transmission of music as the primary program material during a contact

B) Transmission of false or deceptive messages or signals

C) All of these answers are correct

D) The use of obscene or indecent words

3 / 71

C) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?

A) Listening only for a specific station or stations

B) Keep frequency clear

C) Operating fu ll break-in

D) Closing station

4 / 71

D) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2 meter bands?

A) 300 baud

B) 19.6 kilobaud

C) 1200 baud

D) 56 kilobaud

5 / 71

E) What is measured by the solar flux index?

A) The density of the sun's magnetic field

B) A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

C) The radio energy emitted by the sun

D) The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth

6 / 71

F) What does the Q signal "QRV" mean when operating CW?

A) I am quitting for the day

B) There is interference on the frequency

C) You are sending too fast

D) I am ready to receive messages

7 / 71

G) When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

A) Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

B) To control a space station

C) Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the BTRC

D) During a declared communications emerBency

8 / 71

H) Where PSK signals are generally found on the 20 meter band?

A) ln the weak signal portion of the band

B) ln the low end of the phone band

C) ln the high end of the phone band

D) Around 14.070 MHz

9 / 71

I) What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?

A) lt has built-in error correction

B) lt is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes

C) lt is much higher speed than RTTY

D) lt offers good performance in weak signal environment without error correction

10 / 71

J) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (eSK)?

A) Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

B) an operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmissioon

C) lncoming signals are received between transmitted code character elements

D) Automatic keyers are used to send morse code instead of hand keys

11 / 71

K) Which sideband is commonly used on the 150,75, and 40 meter bands?

A) Lower Sideband

B) Vestigial Sideband

C) Double Sideband

D) U pper Sideba nd

12 / 71

L) What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A) Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

B) Only frequencies that are within your operating privile8es

C) Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicatinB the distress message

D) 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day

13 / 71

M) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?

A) 19.6 kilobaud

B) 300 baud

C) 56 kilobaud

D) 1200 baud

14 / 71

N) How many data bits are sent in a single PSK3l character?

A) 7

B) 5

C) The number varies

D) 8

15 / 71

O) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A) At the summer solstice

B) Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

C) At any point in the solar cycle

D) Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

16 / 71

P) Which of the followinB statement is true of VOX operation?

A) The received signal is more natural sounding

B) VOX allows "hands free" operation

C) The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced

D) Frequency spectrum is conserved

17 / 71

Q) what is the standard bandwidth for narrow band FM transmission in VHF and UHF

A) 12.5 KHz

B) s0 kHz

C) 20 kHz

D) 25 KHz

18 / 71

R) How radio communications are usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

A) VHF/UHF ducting is improved

B) HF communications are improved

C) HF communications are disturbed

D) VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

19 / 71

S) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions transmitted on frequency bands below 28 MHz?

A) 56 kilobaud

B) 19.6 kilobaud

C) 1200 baud

D) 300 baud

20 / 71

T) Whlch of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated with VOX circuitry?

A) VOX Sensitivity

B) All of these choices are correct

C) Anti-VOX

D) VOX Delay

21 / 71

U) When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

A) When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

B) When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

C) At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

D) When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

22 / 71

V) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) between the two stations s 16 MHz?

A) 40 meters

B) 20 meters

C) 80 meters

D) 2 meters

23 / 71

W) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Lower Sideband

B) Vestigial Sideband

C) U pper Sideba nd

D) Double Sideband

24 / 71

X) What is the best speed to use answerinB a CQ in Morse Code?

A) The speed at which you are most comfortable copying

B) 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

C) A slow speed until contact is established

D) The speed at which the CQ was sent

25 / 71

Y) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

B) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

C) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

D) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

26 / 71

Z) How does BTRC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not covered by the rules?

A) ln conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

B) ln conformance with the rules of the IARU

C) ln conformance with amateur radio custom

D) All of these answers are correct

27 / 71

AA) What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicates?

A) The caller is listeninB for a station in Germany

B) This is a form of distress call

C) A general callfor any station

D) The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

28 / 71

AB) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Lower Sideband

B) Vestigial Sideband

C) U pper Sideba nd

D) Double Sideband

29 / 71

AC) What does the term zero beat mean in CW operation?

A) Matching the speed of the transmitting station

B) M atch ing the frequency of the transmitting station

C) Sending without error

D) Operating split to avoid lnterference on frequency

30 / 71

AD) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on another
channel?

A) Repeater Station

B) Telecommmand Station

C) Beacon Station

D) Relay Station

31 / 71

AE) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by BTRC rules for amateur radio stations when operating on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

A) 3 kHz

B) +/-2.8 kHz

C) 5.6 kHz

D) 2.8 kHz

32 / 71

AF) What minimum frequency separation between 170 Hz shift RTTY signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) 250 to 500 Hz

B) 170 Hz

C) 60 Hz

D) Approximately 3 kHz

33 / 71

AG) What is a band plan?

A) A guideline from the ITU for making amateur frequency band allocations

B) A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

C) A guideline from the BTRC for making amateur frequency band allocations

D) A voluntary guideline for band use beyond the divisions established by the BTRC

34 / 71

AH) What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

A) 1500 watts PEP output

B) 2000 watts PEP output

C) 1000 watts PEP output

D) 200 watts PEP output

35 / 71

AI) Which emission mode must be used to obtain assistance during a disaster?

A) Only SSB

B) Only CW

C) Only SSB and CW

D) Any mode

36 / 71

AJ) Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the Amateur Rules?

A) ldentifying net frequencies

B) Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

C) Automatic ldentification of Repeaters

D) Observation of propagation and reception, or other related activities

37 / 71

AK) What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?

A) Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

B) Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign

C) Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations

D) Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response

38 / 71

AL) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

B) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

C) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

D) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

39 / 71

AM) What minimum frequency separation between SSB signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) Approximately 6 kHz

B) Approximately 10 kHz

C) Between 150 and 500 Hz

D) Approximately 3 kHz

40 / 71

AN) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful I contact if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) between the two stations is 22 MHz?

A) 40 meters

B) L5 meters

C) 10 meters

D) 20 meters

41 / 71

AO) Which of the following statement is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode?

A) lt is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed

B) lt is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz 50.

C) lt is a form offrequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized

D) lt reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies

42 / 71

AP) How long is the typicalsunspot cycle?

A) Approximately 8 minutes

B) Approximately 11 years

C) Between 20 and 40 hours

D) Approximately 28 days

43 / 71

AQ) What does the Q signal "Q51" mean when operating CW?

A) I acknowledge receipt

B) We have already confirmed by card

C) We have worked before

D) Send slower

44 / 71

AR) What is QRP operation?

A) Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

B) Traffic Relay Procedure net operation

C) Low power transmit operation, typically about 5 watts

D) Remote Piloted Model control

45 / 71

AS) Which of the following describes Baudot RTTY?

A) Two ma.lor operating modes are SELCAL and LISTEN

B) 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits

C) Utilizes error detection and correction

D) 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits

46 / 71

AT) lf the H F radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good on the 24-M H z and ].B-MH:- bands for several days, when might you expect a similar condition to occur?

A) 28 days later

B) 7 days later

C) 90 days later

D) 14 days later

47 / 71

AU) What should you do if you notice increasing interference from other activity on a frequency you are using?

A) Tell the interfering stations to change frequency since you were there first

B) Move your contact to another frequenc"y

C) Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

D) Turn on your amplifier

48 / 71

AV) What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean when operating CW?

A) Slow down

B) Qu itting operation

C) Zero beat my signal

D) Send faster

49 / 71

AW) With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A) The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

B) There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location

C) The frequency must be posted on the lnternet or published in a national periodical

D) ldentification must be in Morse Code

50 / 71

AX) Which sideband is most commonly used for phone communications on the bands above 20 meters?

A) Vestigial Sideband

B) Lower Sideband

C) Double Sideba nd

D) Upper Sideband

51 / 71

AY) What minimum frequency separation between CW signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) 1to 3 kHz

B) 3 to 6 kHz

C) 150 to 500 Hz

D) 5 to 50 Hz

52 / 71

AZ) Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid
harmful interference to other users

A) When using a band where the amateur service is secondary

B) When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

C) All ofthese answers are correct

D) When operating within one mile of an BTRC Monitoring Station

53 / 71

BA) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

A) Closing station now

B) Listening only for a specific station or stations

C) Listening for novice stations

D) Operating full break-in

54 / 71

BB) How long does it take charged particles from Coronal Mass Ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?

A) 14 days

B) 20 to 40 hours

C) 28 days

D) The effect is instantaneous

55 / 71

BC) Which mode should be selected when using a SSB transmitter with an Audio Frequency Shift Keying (AFSK) RTTY signal?

A) LSB

B) DSB

C) USB

D) cw

56 / 71

BD) What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message?

A) AR

B) SK

C) KN

D) BK

57 / 71

BE) Which of the following 20 meter band segments is most often used for most data transmissions?

A) 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

B) 14.000 - 14.050 MHz

C) 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

D) 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

58 / 71

BF) Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in assisting emergency relief
operations during a disaster?

A) Only a RACES net control operator

B) Only official emergency stations may transmit during a disaster

C) only a person holding an BTRC issued amateur operator license

D) Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

59 / 71

BG) Which of the following operating restrictions applies to amateur radio stations as a secondary service in the 60 meter band?

A) They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize harmful interference to other radio services

B) They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth

C) They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other radio services

D) They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier only

60 / 71

BH) Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A) An omnidirectional antenna

B) An isotropic antenna

C) A bi-directional antenna

D) A unidirectional antenna

61 / 71

BI) What is the K-index?

A) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the su rface of the sun

B) A measure of the short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field

C) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

D) A measure ofthe stability ofthe sun's magnetic field

62 / 71

BJ) Which frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar
activity?

A) Frequencies near 3.5 MHz

B) Frequencies above 20 MHz

C) Frequencies at or above 10 MHz

D) Frequencies below 3.5 MHz

63 / 71

BK) What is the main difference between HF and VHF band?

A) HF band means (300 - 3000 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 3 - 30 ) MHz

B) HF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz and VHF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz

C) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means ( 300 - 3000 ) MHz

D) HF band means (3 - 30 ) MHz and VHF band means (30 - 300 ) MHz

64 / 71

BL) What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?

A) Try the other sideband

B) Try a different antenna polarization

C) Try a different frequency shift

D) Try a higher frequency

65 / 71

BM) What should you do if a CW station sends "eRS" when usinB Morse code?

A) Repeat everything twice.

B) Change frequency

C) Send slower

D) lncrease your power

66 / 71

BN) What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling informatlon?

A) Header

B) Directory

C) Footer

D) Preamble

67 / 71

BO) What lan8uage must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than
English in making a contact?

A) The language being used for the contact

B) Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country

C) English

D) Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU

68 / 71

BP) what is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a
station?

A) Azimuthal projection

B) Polar projection

C) Stereographic projection

D) Mercator projection

69 / 71

BQ) When may the BTRC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations?

A) When the country goes under a WAR

B) Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmittinB

C) When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

D) When they declare a temporary state of communication emer8ency

70 / 71

BR) What does the abbreviation "MFsK" stand for?

A) Manual Frequency Sideband Keying

B) Manual Frequency 5hift Keying

C) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

D) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying

71 / 71

BS) What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A) 170 Hz

B) 425 Hz

C) 85 Hz

D) 8s0 Hz

Your score is

Question Bank 2018

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Qustion Bank -2018

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Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2018-1

1 / 49

A) Which sideband is commonly used in the VHF and UHF bands?

A) Double Sideband

B) Lower Sideband

C) Upper Sideband

D) Vestigial Sideband

2 / 49

B) What must you do if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary
service interferes with your contact?

A) Notify the BTRC's spectrum management department of the interference

B) Stop transmitting at once and/or move to a clear frequency

C) Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference

D) Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference

3 / 49

C) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for HF PSK
operation?

A) Call CQ in Morse code before attempting to establish a contact in PSK

B) Follow generally accepted band plans for PSK operation

C) Select a frequency in the upper end of the phone band

D) Select a frequency in the lower end of the phone band

4 / 49

D) Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the Amateur Rules?

A) Observation of propagation and reception, or other related activities

B) Transmission of bulletins of General interest to amateur radio licensees

C) Identifying Net Frequencies

D) Automatic Identification of Repeaters

5 / 49

E) With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A) Identification must be in Morse Code

B) The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization

C) The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical

D) There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location

6 / 49

F) Which of the following is prohibited by the BTRC Rules for amateur radio stations?

A) The use of obscene or indecent words

B) Transmission of music as the primary program material during a contact

C) Transmission of false or deceptive messages or signals

D) All of these answers are correct

7 / 49

G) What minimum frequency separation between 170 Hz shift RTTY signals should be allowed to minimize
interference?

A) 250 to 500 Hz

B) 60 Hz

C) 170 Hz

D) Approximately 3 kHz

8 / 49

H) Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation?

A) The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced

B) The received signal is more natural sounding

C) Frequency spectrum is conserved

D) VOX allows "hands free" operation

9 / 49

I) When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Intermediate Class
control operator?

A) Only during an BTRC-declared General state of communications emergency

B) Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

C) Under no circumstances

D) Only if the 10 meter control operator holds at least a General class license

10 / 49

J) What minimum frequency separation between SSB signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) Between 150 and 500 Hz

B) Approximately 10 kHz

C) Approximately 6 kHz

D) Approximately 3 kHz

11 / 49

K) Which amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?

A) 11 meters

B) 12 meters

C) 10 meters

D) None

12 / 49

L) Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an
amateur station?

A) The third party is not a Bangladeshi citizen

B) The third party is a person previously licensed in the amateur service whose license had been revoked

C) The third party is speaking in a language other than English, French, or Spanish

D) The third party is a licensed amateur

13 / 49

M) Which of the following is a permissible third party communication during routine amateur radio
operations?

A) Sending a business message for another person, as long as the control operator has no pecuniary interest in the message

B) Sending a business message for another person, as long it is for a non-profit organization

C) Permitting an unlicensed person to speak to a licensed amateur anywhere in the world

D) Sending a message to a third party through a foreign station, as long as that person is a licensed amateur radio operator

14 / 49

N) Which of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated with VOX circuitry?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) Anti-VOX

C) VOX Delay

D) VOX Sensitivity

15 / 49

O) What is the standard repeater shifting in VHF band?

A) 900 KHz

B) 1 MHz

C) 5 MHz

D) 600 KHz

16 / 49

P) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for Slow- Scan
TV (SSTV) operation?

A) Follow generally accepted band plans for SSTV operation

B) Select a frequency in the portion of the band set aside for digital operation

C) Transmit only on lower sideband

D) Transmit your callsign as an SSTV image for 1 minute to ensure a clear frequency

17 / 49

Q) When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

A) When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

B) When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz

C) At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions

D) When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle or ISS retransmission

18 / 49

R) Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other voice modes
on the HF amateur bands?

A) Ease of tuning on receive

B) Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics)

C) Less bandwidth used and high power efficiency

D) Very high fidelity voice modulation

19 / 49

S) What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by BTRC rules for amateur radio stations when operating
on USB frequencies in the 60--meter band?

A) 2.8 kHz

B) 3 kHz

C) +/-2.8 kHz

D) 5.6 kHz

20 / 49

T) What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz for Intermediate
class?

A) 1500 watts PEP output

B) 100 watts PEP output

C) 1000 watts PEP output

D) 2000 watts PEP output

21 / 49

U) Which of the following operating restrictions applies to amateur radio stations as a secondary service in
the 60 meter band?

A) They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other radio services

B) They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth

C) They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize harmful interference to other radio services

D) They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier, only

22 / 49

V) When normal communications systems are not available, what means may an amateur station use to
provide essential communications when there is an immediate threat to the safety of human life or the
protection of property?

A) Any means, but only on to RACES recognized emergency stations

B) Any means of radio communication at its disposal

C) Only those means of radio communication for which the station is licensed

D) Only transmissions sent on internationally recognized emergency channels

23 / 49

W) Which sideband is most commonly used for phone communications on the bands above 20 meters?

A) Lower Sideband

B) Upper Sideband

C) Double Sideband

D) Vestigial Sideband

24 / 49

X) Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in assisting emergency relief
operations during a disaster?

A) Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

B) Only official emergency stations may transmit during a disaster

C) Only a person holding an BTRC issued amateur operator license

D) Only a RACES net control operator

25 / 49

Y) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter
band?

A) 1200 baud

B) 300 baud

C) 19.6 kilobaud

D) 56 kilobaud

26 / 49

Z) Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an
uncoordinated repeater?

A) Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference

B) The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

C) The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

D) The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

27 / 49

AA) What language must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than
English in making a contact?

A) Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU

B) The language being used for the contact

C) Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country

D) English

28 / 49

AB) What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ using
phone?

A) Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ to avoid interference to contacts that maybe in progress

B) Call CQ at low power first and if there is no indication of interference, increase power as necessary

C) Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference to contacts that may be in progress

D) Ask if the frequency is in use, say your callsign, and listen for a response

29 / 49

AC) What limitations, other than the 1500 watt PEP limit, are placed on transmitter power in the 14 MHz
band?

A) Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency

B) Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

C) Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts

D) Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz

30 / 49

AD) How does the BTRC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not covered by the rules?

A) All of these answers are correct

B) In conformance with amateur radio custom

C) In conformance with the rules of the IARU

D) In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice

31 / 49

AE) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 6 and 2
meter bands?

A) 300 baud

B) 56 kilobaud

C) 1200 baud

D) 19.6 kilobaud

32 / 49

AF) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions transmitted on frequency bands below
28 MHz?

A) 56 kilobaud

B) 300 baud

C) 1200 baud

D) 19.6 kilobaud

33 / 49

AG) What should you do to comply with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency for radio-
teletype (RTTY) operation?

A) Select a frequency in the upper end of the phone band

B) Follow generally accepted band plans for RTTY operation

C) Select a frequency in the lower end of the phone band

D) Call CQ in Morse code before attempting to establish a contact in RTTY

34 / 49

AH) What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicates?

A) The caller is listening for a station in Germany

B) The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

C) This is a form of distress call

D) A general call for any station

35 / 49

AI) What action should be taken if the frequency on which a net normally meets is in use just before the
net begins?

A) Cancel the net for that day

B) Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you

C) Ask the stations if the net may use the frequency, or move the net to a nearby clear frequency if necessary

D) Reduce your output power and start the net as usual

36 / 49

AJ) What is a band plan?

A) A guideline from the ITU for making amateur frequency band allocations

B) A guideline from the BTRC for making amateur frequency band allocations

C) A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

D) A voluntary guideline for band use beyond the divisions established by the BTRC

37 / 49

AK) What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when calling CQ using Morse code or CW?

A) Call CQ at low power first; if there is no indication of interference then increase power as necessary

B) Keep your CQ to less than 2 minutes in length to avoid interference with contacts already in progress

C) Send "QRL? de" followed by your callsign and listen for a response

D) Send the letter "V" 12 times and then listen for a response

38 / 49

AL) Which sideband is commonly used on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?

A) Upper Sideband

B) Double Sideband

C) Vestigial Sideband

D) Lower Sideband

39 / 49

AM) What should you do if you notice increasing interference from other activity on a frequency you are
using?

A) Move your contact to another frequency

B) Tell the interfering stations to change frequency since you were there first

C) Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

D) Turn on your amplifier

40 / 49

AN) Which of the following conditions require an amateur radio station to take specific steps to avoid
harmful interference to other users

A) All of these answers are correct

B) When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

C) When using a band where the amateur service is secondary

D) When operating within one mile of an BTRC Monitoring Station

41 / 49

AO) What should be done if a net is about to begin on a frequency you and another station are using?

A) Reduce power to avoid interfering with the net

B) Tell the net that they must to move to another frequency

C) Pause between transmissions to give the net a chance to change frequency

D) Move to a different frequency as a courtesy to the net

42 / 49

AP) What minimum frequency separation between CW signals should be allowed to minimize interference?

A) 1 to 3 kHz

B) 150 to 500 Hz

C) 5 to 50 Hz

D) 3 to 6 kHz

43 / 49

AQ) What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other stations on another
channel?

A) Beacon Station

B) Repeater Station

C) Telecommmand Station

D) Relay Station

44 / 49

AR) What is the standard repeater shifting in UHF band?

A) 1 MHz

B) 5 MHz

C) 90 KHz

D) 600 KHz

45 / 49

AS) What is the standard bandwidth for narrow band FM transmission in VHF and UHF

A) 50 kHz

B) 20 kHz

C) 25 KHz

D) 12.5 KHz

46 / 49

AT) What is the recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?

A) Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign

B) Say "Break" "Break" "Break" and wait for a response

C) Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations

D) Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

47 / 49

AU) Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB) voice mode?

A) It is a form of frequency modulation in which higher frequencies are emphasized

B) It is the only voice mode authorized on the HF bands between 14 and 30 MHz 50.

C) It reproduces upper frequencies more efficiently than lower frequencies

D) It is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband and the carrier are suppressed

48 / 49

AV) When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

A) Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

B) During a declared communications emergency

C) To control a space station

D) Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the BTRC

49 / 49

AW) What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?

A) 56 kilobaud

B) 19.6 kilobaud

C) 300 baud

D) 1200 baud

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Question Bank-2018-2

1 / 50

A) How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

A) 5

B) The number varies

C) 8

D) 7

2 / 50

B) What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance (SID) have on the daytime ionospheric propagation
of HF radio waves?

A) None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

B) It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

C) It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths

D) It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

3 / 50

C) What is measured by the solar flux index?

A) A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun

B) The radio energy emitted by the sun

C) The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth

D) The density of the sun's magnetic field

4 / 50

D) What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the BTRC?

A) Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

B) Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

C) Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

D) Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

5 / 50

E) What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a sudden ionospheric
disturbance?

A) Try a higher frequency

B) Try a different frequency shift

C) Try the other sideband

D) Try a different antenna polarization

6 / 50

F) What information should be given to a station answering a distress transmission?

A) The ITU region and grid square locator of the emergency

B) The name of the local emergency coordinator

C) The location and nature of the emergency

D) The time that the emergency occurred and the local weather

7 / 50

G) What does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for?

A) Manual Frequency Sideband Keying

B) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

C) Manual Frequency Shift Keying

D) Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying

8 / 50

H) What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a
station in distress break in?

A) Change to a different frequency

B) Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

C) Continue your communication because you were on frequency first

D) Immediately cease all transmissions

9 / 50

I) When may the BTRC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations?

A) When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

B) When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

C) Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

D) When the country goes under a WAR

10 / 50

J) Which of the following is required by the BTRC rules when operating in HF band?

A) You must keep a log of all third party traffic

B) You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

C) You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

D) If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

11 / 50

K) What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code?

A) The speed at which you are most comfortable copying

B) A slow speed until contact is established

C) The speed at which the CQ was sent

D) 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

12 / 50

L) What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message?

A) AR

B) SK

C) BK

D) KN

13 / 50

M) What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS" when using Morse code?

A) Change frequency

B) Increase your power

C) Repeat everything twice.

D) Send slower

14 / 50

N) Frequencies may be used by an amateur station to obtain assistance when in distress?

A) Any United Nations approved frequency

B) Any frequency authorized to the control operator

C) Only frequencies in the 80 meter band

D) Only frequencies in the 40 meter band

15 / 50

O) What does the Q signal "QSL" mean when operating CW?

A) Send slower

B) I acknowledge receipt

C) We have already confirmed by card

D) We have worked before

16 / 50

P) Which latitudes have propagation paths that are more sensitive to geomagnetic disturbances?

A) Those greater than 45 degrees North or South latitude

B) All paths are affected equally

C) Those between 5 and 45 degrees North or South latitude

D) Those at or very near to the equator

17 / 50

Q) What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?

A) It is much higher speed than RTTY

B) It has built-in error correction

C) It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes

D) It offers good performance in weak signal environment without error correction

18 / 50

R) Which of the following information must a licensee retain as part of their station records?

A) A copy of all third party messages sent through your station

B) Antenna gain calculations or manufacturer's data for antennas used on 60 meters

C) A record of all contacts made with stations in foreign countries

D) The call sign of other amateurs operating your station

19 / 50

S) What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant
station?

A) Stereographic projection

B) Mercator projection

C) Azimuthal projection

D) Polar projection

20 / 50

T) What is the solar-flux index?

A) Another name for the American sunspot number

B) A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth

C) A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions

D) A measure of solar activity at 10.7 cm

21 / 50

U) What is the A-index?

A) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun

B) An indicator of the long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field

C) The amount of polarization of the sun's electric field

D) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

22 / 50

V) Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A) A unidirectional antenna

B) A bi-directional antenna

C) An omnidirectional antenna

D) An isotropic antenna

23 / 50

W) What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

A) Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

B) Date and time of contact

C) Band and/or frequency of the contact

D) All of these choices are correct

24 / 50

X) Where PSK signals are generally found on the 20 meter band?

A) In the weak signal portion of the band

B) Around 14.070 MHz

C) In the low end of the phone band

D) In the high end of the phone band

25 / 50

Y) When is an amateur station prevented from using any means at its disposal to assist another station in
distress?

A) Never

B) Only on authorized HF frequencies

C) Only when transmitting in RACES

D) Only when authorized by the BTRC rule

26 / 50

Z) What type of transmission would a control operator be making when transmitting out of the amateur
band without station identification during a life threatening emergency?

A) An unidentified transmission

B) A prohibited transmission

C) A third party communication

D) An auxiliary transmission

27 / 50

AA) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

A) Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

B) An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

C) Incoming signals are received between transmitted code character elements

D) Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

28 / 50

AB) What does the Q signal "QRV" mean when operating CW?

A) There is interference on the frequency

B) I am ready to receive messages

C) I am quitting for the day

D) You are sending too fast

29 / 50

AC) What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A) Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

B) Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

C) Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

D) 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day

30 / 50

AD) What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

A) Preamble

B) Header

C) Footer

D) Directory

31 / 50

AE) What can be an effect of a geomagnetic storm on radio-wave propagation?

A) Improved ground-wave propagation

B) Improved high-latitude HF propagation

C) Improved chances of UHF ducting

D) Degraded high-latitude HF propagation

32 / 50

AF) What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

A) To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

B) To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

C) To provide emergency and public safety communications

D) To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules

33 / 50

AG) What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A) 85 Hz

B) 425 Hz

C) 170 Hz

D) 850 Hz

34 / 50

AH) Which mode should be selected when using a SSB transmitter with an Audio Frequency Shift Keying
(AFSK) RTTY signal?

A) LSB

B) CW

C) USB

D) DSB

35 / 50

AI) What type of transmissions may an amateur station make during a disaster?

A) Only one-way communications

B) Transmissions necessary to meet essential communications needs and to facilitate relief actions

C) Only transmissions from an official emergency station

D) Only transmissions when RACES net is activated

36 / 50

AJ) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?

A) Listening only for a specific station or stations

B) Closing station

C) Operating full break-in

D) Keep frequency clear

37 / 50

AK) What does the term zero beat mean in CW operation?

A) Matching the frequency of the transmitting station

B) Matching the speed of the transmitting station

C) Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

D) Sending without error

38 / 50

AL) Which emission mode must be used to obtain assistance during a disaster?

A) Any mode

B) Only SSB and CW

C) Only CW

D) Only SSB

39 / 50

AM) When are you prohibited from helping a station in distress?

A) You are never prohibited from helping any station in distress

B) When the station is not another amateur station

C) When the station in distress offers no call sign

D) When that station is not transmitting on amateur frequencies

40 / 50

AN) Which of the following 20 meter band segments is most often used for most data transmissions?

A) 14.000 - 14.050 MHz

B) 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

C) 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

D) 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

41 / 50

AO) How long is the typical sunspot cycle?

A) Approximately 28 days

B) Approximately 11 years

C) Between 20 and 40 hours

D) Approximately 8 minutes

42 / 50

AP) What skills learned during Fox Hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

A) Direction-finding skills used to locate stations violating BTRC Rules

B) Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

C) Identification of out of band operation

D) Identification of different call signs

43 / 50

AQ) What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean when operating CW?

A) Slow down

B) Send faster

C) Quitting operation

D) Zero beat my signal

44 / 50

AR) What is the effect on radio communications when sunspot numbers are high?

A) High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted

B) Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication

C) Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is diminished

D) Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced

45 / 50

AS) Which of the following describes Baudot RTTY?

A) 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits

B) 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits

C) Two major operating modes are SELCAL and LISTEN

D) Utilizes error detection and correction

46 / 50

AT) What is a geomagnetic disturbance?

A) A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole

B) A sudden drop in the solar-flux index

C) Ripples in the ionosphere

D) A significant change in the Earth's magnetic field over a short period of time

47 / 50

AU) Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the BTRC doesn't require it?

A) The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

B) The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

C) To help with a reply if the BTRC requests information on who was control operator of your station at a given date and time

D) The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

48 / 50

AV) What is the K-index?

A) An index of solar radio flux measured at Boulder, Colorado

B) A measure of the short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field

C) An index of the relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun

D) A measure of the stability of the sun's magnetic field

49 / 50

AW) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

A) Operating full break-in

B) Closing station now

C) Listening for novice stations

D) Listening only for a specific station or stations

50 / 50

AX) What is QRP operation?

A) Traffic Relay Procedure net operation

B) Low power transmit operation, typically about 5 watts

C) Remote Piloted Model control

D) Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

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Ham Radio Exam- Practices

Question Bank-2018-3

1 / 50

A) Which of the following is one use for a DSP in an amateur station?

A) To increase antenna bandwidth

B) To remove noise from received signals

C) To provide adequate grounding

D) To increase antenna gain

2 / 50

B) What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

A) To keep the carrier on frequency

B) To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

C) To eliminate self oscillations

D) To limit the modulation index

3 / 50

C) What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

A) Better for measuring computer circuits

B) Better for RF measurements

C) Significantly better precision for most uses

D) Faster response

4 / 50

D) Which of the following instruments may be used to measure the output of a single-sideband
transmitter when performing a two-tone test of amplitude linearity?

A) An audio distortion analyzer

B) A high impedance audio voltmeter

C) A directional wattmeter

D) An oscilloscope

5 / 50

E) What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground
wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation?

A) Short-path skip

B) Sporadic-E skip

C) Ground wave

D) Scatter

6 / 50

F) What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A) An ohmmeter

B) An ammeter

C) A signal generator

D) An oscilloscope

7 / 50

G) If the HF radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good on the 24-MHz and 28-MHz bands for several
days, when might you expect a similar condition to occur?

A) 90 days later

B) 14 days later

C) 28 days later

D) 7 days later

8 / 50

H) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during
daylight hours?

A) At the summer solstice

B) Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle

C) At any point in the solar cycle

D) Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

9 / 50

I) What are the propagation path or wave for HF radio contact.

A) Only sky wave propagation

B) Only ground wave propagation

C) Both ground wave and sky wave propagation

D) None of the above

10 / 50

J) Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies
below 10 MHz?

A) The E layer

B) The F1 layer

C) The D layer

D) The F2 layer

11 / 50

K) What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A) The ionospheric layer involved is unstable

B) The E-region is not present

C) Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several radio wave paths

D) Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

12 / 50

L) What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?

A) It controls differential gain

B) It reduces incidental grid modulation

C) It eliminates AC hum from the power supply

D) It cancels the effects of positive feedback

13 / 50

M) Why we use a linear RF amplifier?

A) To increase the out put RF power of the antenna

B) To decrease the out put RF power of the transmitter

C) To increase the out put RF power of the transmitter

D) To fine tune the out put RF power of the transmitter

14 / 50

N) How is DSP filtering accomplished?

A) By using direct signal phasing

B) By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

C) By up-converting the signal to VHF

D) By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing

15 / 50

O) When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your location?

A) At noon during the winter

B) At noon during the summer

C) At dusk in the spring and fall

D) At midnight during the summer

16 / 50

P) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the
F2 region?

A) 180 miles

B) 1,200 miles

C) 2,500 miles

D) 12,000 miles

17 / 50

Q) Which of the following is true about ionospheric absorption near the maximum usable frequency
(MUF)?

A) Absorption is greater for vertically polarized waves

B) Absorption approaches maximum

C) Absorption is greater for horizontally polarized waves

D) Absorption will be minimum

18 / 50

R) How long does it take charged particles from Coronal Mass Ejections to affect radio-wave propagation
on the Earth?

A) 20 to 40 hours

B) 28 days

C) 14 days

D) The effect is instantaneous

19 / 50

S) How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar
coronal holes?

A) VHF/UHF ducting is improved

B) VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

C) HF communications are improved

D) HF communications are disturbed

20 / 50

T) What instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter
adjustments?

A) A Q meter

B) An antenna noise bridge

C) A field-strength meter

D) A multimeter

21 / 50

U) What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?

A) The long path azimuth of a distant station

B) The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

C) The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

D) The short path azimuth of a distant station

22 / 50

V) What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?

A) Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

B) Short distance HF propagation using high elevation angles

C) Double hop propagation near the LUF

D) Propagation near the MUF

23 / 50

W) What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

A) They have a wavering sound

B) They have very large swings in signal strength

C) They have high intelligibility

D) All of these choices are correct

24 / 50

X) Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

A) Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions

B) All of these choices are correct

C) Because it is the densest ionospheric layer

D) Because it is the highest ionospheric region

25 / 50

Y) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency
(MUF) between the two stations s 16 MHz?

A) 2 meters

B) 20 meters

C) 40 meters

D) 80 meters

26 / 50

Z) What does MUF stand for?

A) The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

B) The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

C) The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

D) The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

27 / 50

AA) Which of the following techniques is used to neutralize an RF amplifier?

A) Feed-forward cancellation

B) Feed-forward compensation

C) Negative feedback

D) Positive feedback

28 / 50

AB) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the lowest usable frequency (LUF)?

A) They pass through the ionosphere

B) They are bent back to the Earth

C) They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

D) They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

29 / 50

AC) What is a reliable way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support
28-MHz propagation between your station and Western Europe?

A) Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe

B) Send a series of dots on the 28 MHz band and listen for echoes from your signal

C) Listen for signals on a 28 MHz international beacon

D) Listen to WWV propagation signals on the 28 MHz band

30 / 50

AD) Which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact if the maximum usable frequency
(MUF) between the two stations is 22 MHz?

A) 15 meters

B) 20 meters

C) 10 meters

D) 40 meters

31 / 50

AE) How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the "S" meter reading on a
distant receiver from S8 to S9?

A) Approximately 2 times

B) Approximately 3 times

C) Approximately 5 times

D) Approximately 4 times

32 / 50

AF) Which frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar
activity?

A) Frequencies at or above 10 MHz

B) Frequencies below 3.5 MHz

C) Frequencies near 3.5 MHz

D) Frequencies above 20 MHz

33 / 50

AG) What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

A) Reduced long delayed echoes

B) Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

C) Improved HF long path propagation

D) Aurora that can reflect VHF signals

34 / 50

AH) What happens to HF propagation when the lowest usable frequency (LUF) exceeds the maximum
usable frequency (MUF)?

A) Double hop propagation along the path is more common

B) Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

C) No HF radio frequency will support communications over the path

D) HF communications over the path are enhanced at the frequency where the LUF and MUF are the same

35 / 50

AI) Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?

A) The D layer

B) The F1 layer

C) The F2 layer

D) The E layer

36 / 50

AJ) What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring oscilloscope when checking the
quality of a transmitted signal?

A) The transmitter balanced mixer output

B) The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

C) The local oscillator of the transmitter

D) The audio input of the transmitter

37 / 50

AK) What does LUF stand for?

A) The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period

B) The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points

C) The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

D) The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

38 / 50

AL) How is a noise bridge normally used?

A) It is connected between an antenna and ground and tuned for minimum SWR

B) It is connected between a receiver and an antenna of unknown impedance and is adjusted for minimum noise

C) It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the antenna's noise figure

D) t is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and tuned for minimum SWR

39 / 50

AM) What is the meaning of AVO meter we are using as testing device?

A) Acceleration Volt Ohms measuring meter

B) Ampere Volt Ohms measuring meter

C) Accelaration Velocity Ohms measuring meter

D) Ampere Velocity Ohms measuring meter

40 / 50

AN) What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

A) Percentage of carrier phase shift

B) Percentage of frequency modulation

C) Linearity

D) Carrier and undesired sideband suppression

41 / 50

AO) What are the two types of transistor we use in general?

A) PNP and PMP

B) NPP and PNP

C) NPP and NPN

D) NPN and PNP

42 / 50

AP) Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via
scatter propagation?

A) The signal is heard on a frequency above the maximum usable frequency

B) The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance

C) The communication is during a sunspot maximum

D) The signal is heard on a frequency below the maximum usable frequency

43 / 50

AQ) Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver IF filter created with a DSP as compared to an
analog filter?

A) Fewer digital components are required

B) A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

C) The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

D) Mixing products are greatly reduced

44 / 50

AR) Which of the following is the best instrument to use to check the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A) A field-strength meter

B) A wavemeter

C) A monitoring oscilloscope

D) A sidetone monitor

45 / 50

AS) Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during
the day?

A) The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

B) The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

C) The F layer absorbs these frequencies during daylight hours

D) The D layer absorbs these frequencies during daylight hours

46 / 50

AT) Which of the following is needed for a DSP IF filter?

A) Digital to Analog Converter

B) All of the these answers are correct

C) A Digital Processor Chip

D) An Analog to Digital Converter

47 / 50

AU) What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E
region?

A) 12,000 miles

B) 2,500 miles

C) 180 miles

D) 1,200 miles

48 / 50

AV) What we can do by a Spectrum Analyzer?

A) We can measure multiple frequency at the same time

B) We can measure the RF power

C) We can measure a single frequency

D) We can locate a hidden transmitter

49 / 50

AW) Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A) Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy

B) Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

C) Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

D) Signals are scattered from the troposphere which is not a good reflector

50 / 50

AX) Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

A) An oscilloscope uses less power

B) Complex waveforms can be measured

C) Input impedance is much lower

D) Complex impedances can be easily measured

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Question Bank-2018-4

1 / 50

A) Which of the following power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile
installation?

A) A direct, fused connection to the alternator or generator using resistor wire

B) A direct, fused connection to the battery using resistor wire

C) A direct, fused connection to the battery using heavy gauge wire

D) A direct, fused connection to the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire

2 / 50

B) Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

A) The generator should be located in a well ventilated area

B) Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

C) All of these choices are correct

D) The generator should be insulated from ground

3 / 50

C) What unit is used to measure impedance?

A) Ohm

B) Ampere

C) Watt

D) Volt

4 / 50

D) Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter?

A) Close-in radio direction-finding

B) A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter

C) A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter

D) An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter

5 / 50

E) What sound is heard from a public-address system if there is interference from a nearby single-
sideband phone transmitter?

A) On-and-off humming or clicking

B) A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

C) Clearly audible speech

D) Distorted speech

6 / 50

F) How does a capacitor react to AC?

A) As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

B) As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

C) As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

D) As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

7 / 50

G) Which of the following is a disadvantage to using wind power as the primary source of power for an
emergency station?

A) All of these choices are correct

B) A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

C) The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less that2 percent

D) The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment

8 / 50

H) What unit is used to measure reactance?

A) Farad

B) Ampere

C) Siemens

D) Ohm

9 / 50

I) What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while
transmitting on a HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

A) Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

B) The ground rod is resonant

C) Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire

D) The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

10 / 50

J) Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an
occupied area?

A) Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion

B) Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion

C) Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning

D) Danger of engine over torque

11 / 50

K) What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

A) To minimize SWR in the transmission line

B) To reduce power dissipation in the transmitter

C) To minimize SWR at the antenna

D) To maximize the transfer of power

12 / 50

L) Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?

A) Nickel Hydride

B) Aluminum nitride

C) Doped Platinum

D) Doped Silicon

13 / 50

M) What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single sideband phone
transmitter?

A) It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver

B) It improves voice-frequency fidelity

C) It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone

D) It reduces average transmitter power requirements

14 / 50

N) When might a lead-acid storage battery give off explosive hydrogen gas?

A) When stored for long periods of time

B) When being discharged

C) When being charged

D) When not placed on a level surface

15 / 50

O) What does an S-meter measure?

A) Conductance

B) Impedance

C) Received signal strength

D) Transmitter power output

16 / 50

P) Which of the following statements about station grounding is true?

A) A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment

B) The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together with high- impedance conductors

C) If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground

D) RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire

17 / 50

Q) What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the
power source?

A) No current can flow through the circuit

B) The source delivers minimum power to the load

C) The electrical load is shorted

D) The source can deliver maximum power to the load

18 / 50

R) Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75
meter band?

A) BTRC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band

B) The HF mobile antenna system

C) Picket Fencing' signal variation

D) The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

19 / 50

S) Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

A) PL-259

B) Octal

C) RJ-11

D) DB-25

20 / 50

T) Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

A) The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter

B) The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

C) The radiation resistance of an antenna

D) The radiation pattern of an antenna

21 / 50

U) What is the main reason to use keyed connectors over non-keyed types?

A) Higher current carrying capacity

B) All of these choices are correct

C) Prevention of use by unauthorized persons

D) Reduced chance of damage due to incorrect mating

22 / 50

V) What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

A) Photosynthesis

B) Photovoltaic conversion

C) Photon decomposition

D) Photon emission

23 / 50

W) Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?

A) Reverse-biased diode

B) Bypass capacitor

C) Forward-biased diode

D) Bypass inductor

24 / 50

X) What is the effect on a public-address system if there is interference from nearby CW transmitter?

A) On-and-off humming or clicking

B) Severely distorted audio

C) A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

D) A chirpy CW signal

25 / 50

Y) Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?

A) Magnetic flux would increase with frequency

B) RF susceptance would increase

C) Temporary changes of the core permeability could result

D) Harmonics and distortion could result

26 / 50

Z) Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

A) All of these answers are correct

B) Distorted speech

C) Excessive background pickup

D) Splatter

27 / 50

AA) Why is impedance matching important?

A) To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

B) So the load will draw minimum power from the source

C) So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

D) To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit

28 / 50

AB) What is alternator whine?

A) A mechanical sound from the alternator indicating current overload

B) A DC emission from the alternator

C) A constant pitched tone or buzz in transmitted or received audio that occurs whenever the ignition key is in the on position

D) A tone or buzz in transmitted or received audio that varies with engine speed

29 / 50

AC) Which of the following should be installed if a properly operating amateur station is interfering with a
nearby telephone?

A) An RFI filter at the affected telephone

B) An RFI filter on the transmitter

C) A high pass filter at the affected telephone

D) A high pass filter on the transmitter

30 / 50

AD) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

A) Admittance

B) Conductance

C) Reluctance

D) Reactance

31 / 50

AE) What is one way a noise bridge might be used?

A) Determining the line loss of the antenna system

B) Determining an antenna's gain in dBi

C) Pre-tuning a linear amplifier

D) Pre-tuning an antenna tuner

32 / 50

AF) What is one way a noise bridge might be used?

A) Determining the line loss of the antenna system

B) Pre-tuning an antenna tuner

C) Determining an antenna's gain in dBi

D) Pre-tuning a linear amplifier

33 / 50

AG) What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in an amateur station?

A) Use a ground loop for best conductivity

B) Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible

C) Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire

D) Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station

34 / 50

AH) Why would it be unwise to power your station by back feeding the output of a gasoline generator into
your house wiring by connecting the generator through an AC wall outlet?

A) It is prone to RF interference

B) It might present a hazard for electric company workers

C) None of the above; this is an excellent expedient

D) It may disconnect your RF ground

35 / 50

AI) Which of the following describes a Type-N connector?

A) A moisture resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

B) A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems

C) A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

D) An audio connector used in surround sound installations

36 / 50

AJ) Which of these materials is used as the active element of a solar cell?

A) Nickel Hydride

B) Doped Silicon

C) Doped Platinum

D) Aluminum nitride

37 / 50

AK) Which of the following can cause unintended rectification of RF signal energy and can result in
interference to your station as well as nearby radio and TV receivers?

A) Induced voltages in conductors that are in good electrical contact

B) Excessive standing wave ratio (SWR) of the transmission line system

C) Induced currents in conductors that are in poor electrical contact

D) Capacitive coupling of the RF signal to ground

38 / 50

AL) Where an S-meter is generally found?

A) In a transmitter

B) In a conductance bridge

C) In a SWR bridge

D) In a receiver

39 / 50

AM) Which of the following emission types are permissible while operating HF mobile?

A) SSB

B) CW

C) All of these choices are correct

D) FM

40 / 50

AN) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

A) Conductance

B) Reactance

C) Admittance

D) Reluctance

41 / 50

AO) Which of the following is a reason to place ferrite beads around audio cables to reduce common mode
RF interference?

A) They lower the impedance of the cable

B) They act as a series inductor

C) They act as a shunt capacitor

D) They increase the admittance of the cable

42 / 50

AP) What is one measurement that can be made with a dip meter?

A) The notch depth of a filter

B) The gain of an antenna

C) The resonant frequency of a circuit

D) The tilt of the ionosphere

43 / 50

AQ) Which of the following can be measured with a directional wattmeter?

A) Antenna front-to-back ratio

B) Radio wave propagation

C) RF interference

D) Standing Wave Ratio

44 / 50

AR) Which of the following is an important reason to have a good station ground?

A) All of these answers are correct

B) To reduce interference

C) To reduce the likelihood of electrical shock

D) To reduce the likelihood of RF burns

45 / 50

AS) What is one cause of broadband radio frequency interference at an amateur radio station?

A) Arcing at a poor electrical connection

B) Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

C) Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

D) The use of horizontal, rather than vertical antennas

46 / 50

AT) How does a coil react to AC?

A) As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

B) As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

C) As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

D) As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

47 / 50

AU) Which of the following should be installed if a properly operating amateur station is interfering with a
nearby telephone?

A) A high pass filter at the affected telephone

B) An RFI filter on the transmitter

C) A high pass filter on the transmitter

D) An RFI filter at the affected telephone

48 / 50

AV) Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband signal?

A) It increases the average power

B) It reduces harmonic distortion

C) It increases the peak power

D) It reduces inter-modulation distortion

49 / 50

AW) Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

A) Type N

B) DB-9

C) PL-259

D) Type SMA

50 / 50

AX) How can a ground loop be avoided?

A) Avoid using lock washers and star washers in making ground connections

B) Connect all ground conductors to a single point

C) Series connect all ground conductors

D) Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

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Question Bank-2018-5

1 / 50

A) Which of the following is most often provided as an analog integrated circuit?

A) Linear voltage regulator

B) NAND Gate

C) Gallium Arsenide UHF Receiver front end Amplifier

D) Frequency Counter

2 / 50

B) Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

A) High capacitance for given volume

B) Non-polarized

C) Tight tolerance

D) Inexpensive RF capacitor

3 / 50

C) How is an LED biased when emitting light?

A) At the Zener voltage

B) Reverse Biased

C) Beyond cutoff

D) Forward Biased

4 / 50

D) What is the common name for an inductor used to help smooth the DC output from the rectifier in a
conventional power supply?

A) Back EMF choke

B) Filter choke

C) Repulsion coil

D) Charging inductor

5 / 50

E) What component should be added to an existing resistor in a circuit to increase circuit resistance?

A) A resistor in parallel

B) A capacitor in series

C) A resistor in series

D) A capacitor in parallel

6 / 50

F) What two devices in an amateur radio station might be connected using a USB interface?

A) Microphone and transceiver

B) Amplifier and antenna

C) Computer and transceiver

D) Power supply and amplifier

7 / 50

G) When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to increase current handling capacity, what is the
purpose of the resistor connected in series with each diode?

A) The resistors regulate the power supply output voltage

B) The resistors act as swamping resistors in the circuit

C) The resistors ensure the thermal stability of the power supply

D) The resistors ensure that one diode doesn't carry most of the current

8 / 50

H) What is a microprocessor?

A) A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage

B) A miniature computer on a single integrated circuit chip

C) A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a chip

D) A low powered analog signal processor used as a microwave detector

9 / 50

I) Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and
plate?

A) Screen Grid

B) Suppressor grid

C) Heater

D) Control grid

10 / 50

J) What is the correct formula for Ohms law

A) None of the above

B) I=V*R

C) V=R*I

D) R=V*I

11 / 50

K) What component should be added to an inductor in a circuit to increase the circuit inductance?

A) An inductor in parallel

B) A resistor in parallel

C) An inductor in series

D) A capacitor in series

12 / 50

L) What is meant by the term MMIC?

A) Military-specification Manufactured Integrated Circuit

B) Monolithlic Microwave Integrated Circuit

C) Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit

D) Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

13 / 50

M) Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A) A Pi-network

B) A length of transmission line

C) A transformer

D) All of these choices are correct

14 / 50

N) Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above?

A) Voltage rating may be reduced

B) Effective capacitance may be reduced

C) The polarity of the capacitor might become reversed

D) ESR may be reduced

15 / 50

O) What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 Pico farad capacitors and one 750 Pico farad capacitor
connected in parallel?

A) 576.9 picofarads

B) 3583 picofarads

C) 10750 picofarads

D) 1733 picofarads

16 / 50

P) What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output
impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance

A) 150 to 1

B) 24.4 to 1

C) 300 to 1

D) 12.2 to 1

17 / 50

Q) Which measurement of an AC signal is equivalent to a DC voltage of the same value?

A) The peak value

B) The reciprocal of the RMS value

C) The peak-to-peak value

D) The RMS value

18 / 50

R) Which of the following Solid state devices are most like a vacuum tube in its general characteristics?

A) A bipolar transistor

B) A varistor

C) A tunnel diode

D) An FET

19 / 50

S) How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a parallel circuit?

A) It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

B) It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

C) It equals the average of each branch current

D) It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

20 / 50

T) Why is it often necessary to insulate the case of a large power transistor?

A) To increase the beta of the transistor

B) To improve the power dissipation capability

C) To reduce stray capacitance

D) To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground

21 / 50

U) What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

A) 300 microfarads

B) 33.3 microfarads

C) 0.33 microfarads

D) 0.30 microfarads

22 / 50

V) What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of Nickel Cadmium batteries?

A) Long life

B) High voltage

C) Rapid recharge

D) High discharge current

23 / 50

W) What is meant by the term ROM?

A) Random Operational Memory

B) Read Only Memory

C) Resistor Operated Memory

D) Resistant to Overload Memory

24 / 50

X) What component should be added to a capacitor in a circuit to increase the circuit capacitance?

A) A capacitor in parallel

B) An inductor in series

C) A resistor in series

D) A capacitor in series

25 / 50

Y) Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS Logic integrated circuits compared to TTL logic circuits?

A) High power handling capability

B) Better suited for RF amplification

C) Low power consumption

D) Better suited for power supply regulation

26 / 50

Z) What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?

A) The voltage rating may be exceeded

B) The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies

C) The permeability will increase

D) The magnetic field may become inverted

27 / 50

AA) What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

A) Direct current

B) Magnetizing current

C) Stabilizing current

D) Excitation current

28 / 50

AB) What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid
battery?

A) 8.5 volts

B) 12 volts

C) 10.5 volts

D) 6 volts

29 / 50

AC) What are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon-diode rectifiers?

A) Average power; average voltage

B) Peak inverse voltage; average forward current

C) Peak load impedance; peak voltage

D) Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage

30 / 50

AD) What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?

A) It eliminates ground-loop current

B) It discharges the filter capacitors

C) It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

D) It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

31 / 50

AE) What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel?

A) 0.33 ohms

B) 0.30 ohms

C) 33.3 ohms

D) 300 ohms

32 / 50

AF) What is the main disadvantage of using a conventional wire-wound resistor in a resonant circuit?

A) The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

B) The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit

C) The resistor's inductance could detune the circuit

D) The resistor could overheat

33 / 50

AG) What is an advantage of using a ferrite core with a toroidal inductor?

A) Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

B) Large values of inductance may be obtained

C) The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

D) All of these choices are correct

34 / 50

AH) How should two solenoid inductors be placed so as to minimize their mutual inductance?

A) With their winding axes at right angles to each another

B) Within the same shielded enclosure

C) In line with their winding axis

D) With their winding axes parallel to each other

35 / 50

AI) Where the source of energy is normally connected in a transformer?

A) To the core

B) To the plates

C) To the primary winding

D) To the secondary winding

36 / 50

AJ) What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

A) To increase the high frequency response

B) To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

C) To increase efficiency

D) To decrease plate resistance

37 / 50

AK) Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

A) It offers a wide dynamic range

B) It requires ambient or back lighting

C) It has a wide viewing angle

D) All of these choices are correct

38 / 50

AL) Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

A) The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating later

B) The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

C) The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer

D) The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

39 / 50

AM) When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?

A) As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt

B) When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period

C) When a constant current charger is used

D) Never

40 / 50

AN) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a silicon diode?

A) 0.7 volts

B) 1.0 volts

C) 0.3 volts

D) 0.1 volt

41 / 50

AO) What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a carbon resistor is increased?

A) It will become time dependent

B) It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating

C) It will stay the same

D) It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade

42 / 50

AP) What is the value of each resistor if three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of
resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms?

A) 1500 ohms

B) 90 ohms

C) 150 ohms

D) 175 ohms

43 / 50

AQ) What type of capacitor is often used in power-supply circuits to filter the rectified AC?

A) Disc ceramic

B) Electrolytic

C) Vacuum variable

D) Mica

44 / 50

AR) Which type of integrated circuit is an operational amplifier?